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[Free Cisco Dumps&PDF] Most Hottest Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Microsoft Office 365 Exam Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements Youtube Training Download

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 181
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a workstation that runs Windows 8. You need to install the prerequisite components so that you can view mail protection reports on the workstation. Which two items must you install? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. SQL Server Analysis Services
B. Microsoft Connectivity Analyzer Tool
C. Microsoft Access 2013
D. .NET Framework 4.5
E. Microsoft Excel 2013
70-346 exam Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 182
An organization migrates to Office 365. The Office 365 administrator must be notified when Office 365 maintenance activities are planned. You need to configure the administrator’s computer to receive the notifications. What should you configure?
A. Office 365 Management Pack for System Center Operations Manager
B. Service requests
C. Service health page
D. Office 365 Service Health RSS Notifications feed
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 183
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You create a new retention policy that contains several retention tags. A user named Test5 has a client computer that runs Microsoft Office Outlook 2007. You install Microsoft Outlook 2010 on the client computer of Test5. Test5 reports that the new retention tags are unavailable from Outlook 2010. You verify that other users can use the new retention tags. You need to ensure that the new retention tags are available to Test5 from Outlook 2010. What should you do?
A. Instruct Test5 to repair the Outlook profile.
B. Modify the retention policy tags.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. Force directory synchronization.
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 184
Your company purchases an Office 365 plan. The company has an Active Directory Domain Services domain. User1 must manage Office 365 delegation for the company. You need to ensure that User1 can assign administrative roles to other users. What should you do?
A. Use a password administrator account to assign the role to User1.
B. Use a user management administrator account to assign the role to User1.
C. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the global administrator role.
D. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the password administrator role.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 185
Your company has 100 user mailboxes. The company purchases a subscription to Office 365 for professionals and small businesses. You need to enable the Litigation Hold feature for each mailbox. What should you do first?
A. Create a service request.
B. Modify the default retention policy.
C. Enable audit logging for all of the mailboxes.
D. Purchase a subscription to Office 365 for midsize business and enterprises.
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 186
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012. You plan to install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server. You need to install and configure all of the required roles. Which two roles should you install and configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. AD FS
B. Web Server (IIS)
C. Remote Access
D. Application Server
E. Network Policy and Access Service
F. Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS)
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 187
Product-quality-related costs are part of a total quality control program. A product-quality related cost incurred in detecting individual products that do not conform to specifications is an example of a n)
A. Prevention cost.
B. Appraisal cost.
C. External failure cost.
D. Opportunity cost.
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Quality-related costs can be subdivided into four categories: external failure costs, internalfailure costs, prevention costs, and appraisal costs. Appraisal costs embrace such activities asstatistical quality control programs, inspection, and testing. Thus, the cost of detectingnonconforming individual products is an appraisal cost.
QUESTION 188
The costs of quality that are incurred in detecting units of product that do not conform to product specifications are referred to as
A. Prevention costs.
B. Appraisal costs.
C. Rework costs.
D. Failure costs.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Appraisal embraces such activities as statistical quality control programs, inspection, andtesting. Appraisal costs are those costs such as test equipment maintenance and destructivetesting) incurred to detect which products do not conform to specifications.
QUESTION 189
The use of teams in total quality management TOM) is important because:
A. Well-managed teams can be highly creative and are able to address complex problemsbetter than individuals can.
B. Teams are quicker to make decisions, thereby helping to reduce cycle time.
C. Employee motivation is higher for team members than for individual contributors.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby alloying a company tobecome leaner and more profitable.
70-346 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Teams can use the diverse knowledge and skills of all team members. Employee involvementmeans training and empowering employees to harness their creativity for problem solving. Quality control circles are used to obtain input from employees and to locate the bestperspective on problem solving.
QUESTION 190
A means of limiting production delays caused by equipment breakdown and repair is to:
A. Schedule production based on capacity planning.
B. Plan maintenance activity based on an analysis of equipment repair work orders.
C. Pre-authorize equipment maintenance and overtime pa}.
D. Establish a preventive maintenance program for all production equipment.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Preventivemaintenance program will reduce equipment breakdowns and repairs.
QUESTION 191
If a manufacturer has established a limit on the number of defects that are tolerable in the final assembly of its product, which of the following quality control procedures should be employed?
I.Inspect completed goods for compliance with established tolerances.
II. Review sales returns for defects not detected during the final inspection process.
III. Compare materials and machinery specifications with original product designs.
IV. Establish a quality circle that includes management and subordinates to discuss labor efficiency.
A. I, III, and I.
B. II and III only.
C. I, II, and III.
D. III and IV only.
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Quality control procedures may be categorized according to the nature of the costs incurred. An organization incurs appraisal costs to ensure product quality. These costs include thecosts of inspection, testing, and statistical quality control programs. An organization alsoshould investigate the causes of sales returns, which represent an external failure cost. Furthermore, the organization should incur certain prevention costs, e.g., by reviewingequipment design and materials requirements.
QUESTION 192
Which statement best describes total quality management TOM)?
A. TOM emphasizes reducing the cast of inspection.
B. TOM emphasizes better statistical quality control techniques.
C. TOM emphasizes doing each job right the first time.
D. TOM emphasizes encouraging crass-functional teamwork.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
TOM establishes quality as an organizational objective and views it as a major component ofthe organization’s service to its customers. It emphasizes employee training and commitment,product/service design and production, and customer service. Ordinarily, the quality of aproduct or service is as important to customers as cast and timeliness. Superior productquality is not attained merely through more inspection, better statistical quality control, andcross-functional teamwork. Manufactures must make fundamental changes in the way theyproduce products and do each jab right the first time.
QUESTION 193
Quality cost indices are often used to measure and analyze the cost of maintaining or improving the level of quality. Such indices are computed by dividing the total cost of quality over a given period by some measure of activity during that period for example, sales dollars). The following cost data are available for a company for the month of March. The company’s quality cost index is calculated using total cost of quality divided by sales dollars.
Sales US $400,000
Direct materials cost 100,000
Direct labor cost 80,000
Testing and inspection cost 6,400
Scrap and rework cost 16,800
Quality planning cost 2,800
Cost of customer complaints and returns 4,000
The quality cost index for March is:
A. 7.5%
B. 6.5%
C. 22.0%
D. 5.9%
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The total cost of quality equals the sum of prevention costs quality planning), appraisal casts testing and inspection), internal failure casts scrap and rework), and external failure castscustomer complaints and returns), or U $30,000 $2,800 + $6,400 + $16,800 + $4,000). Thequality cost index equals the total casts of quality divided by sales. Thus, the quality castindex for March is 7.5% U $80,000 U $400,000).
QUESTION 194
The internal audit activity has undertaken an audit of the shipping and receiving department of a department store chain. The best engagement tool for this purpose most likely is:
A. Competitive benchmarking.
B. Strategic benchmarking.
C. Internal benchmarking.
D. Process benchmarking.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process function) benchmarking studies operations of organizations with similar processesregardless of industry. Thus, the benchmark need not be a competitor Or even a similarentity}. This method may introduce new ideas that provide a significant competitiveadvantage. The advantage of process benchmarking is that it permits a wider choice ofbenchmarked organizations. Thus, the best practices for a shipping and receiving functionmay not be found in the same industry}.
QUESTION 195
Using the balanced scorecard approach, an organization evaluates managerial performance based on
A. A single ultimate measure of operating results, such as residual income.
B. Multiple financial and nonfinancial measures.
C. Multiple nonfinancial measures only.
D. Multiple financial measures only.
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The trend in managerial performance evaluation is the balanced scorecard approach. Multiplemeasures of performance permit a determination as to whether a manager is achieving certainobjectives at the expense of others that may be equally or more important. These measuresmay be financial or nonfinancial and usually include items in four categories: I) financial; 2)customer; 3) internal business processes; and 4) learning, growth, and innovation.
QUESTION 196
On a balanced scorecard, which of the following is not a customer measure?
A. Market share.
B. Economic value added.
C. Service response time.
D. Warranty expense.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Customer measures include market share and its trend, service response time, deliveryperformance, warranty returns, expense, complaints, and survey results. Economic valueadded, or E1 A, is a financial measure.
QUESTION 197
Under the balanced scorecard concept, employee satisfaction and retention are measures used under which of the following perspectives?
A. Customer.
B. Internal business.
C. Learning and growth.
D. Financial.
70-346 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The balanced scorecard is an accounting report that connects the firm’s critical successfactors CSFs) determined in a strategic analysis to measures of its performance. CSFs arefinancial and nonfinancial measures. For the learning, growth, and innovation perspective,the CSFs may be development of new products, promptness of their introduction, humanresource development, morale, and competence of the workforce. Measures of employeesatisfaction, retention, and competence may include RD personnel qualifications, hours oftraining, skill set levels attained, personnel turnover, and personnel complaints and surveyresults.
QUESTION 198
On a balanced scorecard, which is more of an internal process measure than an external based measure?
A. Cycle time.
B. Profitability.
C. Customer satisfaction.
D. Market share.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cycle time is the manufacturing time to complete an order. Thus, cycle time is strictly relatedto internal processes. Profitability is a combination of internal and external considerations. Customer satisfaction and market share are related to how customers perceive a product andhow competitors react.
QUESTION 199
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of an innovative manufacturing company?
A. Emphasis on continuous improvement.
B. Responsiveness to the changing manufacturing environment.
C. Emphasis on existing products.
D. Improved customer satisfaction through product quality.
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Innovative companies are customer driven. Because customers demand ever better qualityand competitors are attempting to provide that quality, continuous improvement calledkaizen by the Japanese) is essential for such companies. Thus, the flaw of innovativeproducts and services must be continuous. Simply emphasizing existing products is not aneffective strategy for most organizations.

70-346 dumps

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[Free Cisco Dumps&PDF] Discount Cisco 100-105 Dumps ICND1 PDF Exams Video Answers Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 For Download

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
100-105 exam Answer: E
Explanation:
For packets destined to a host on another IP network, the destination MAC address will be the LAN interface of the router. Since the FTP server lies on a different network, the host will know to send the frame to its default gateway, which is Toronto.
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Switches use a separate collision domain for each port, so device A must be a switch. Hubs, however, place all ports in the same collision domain so device B is a hub. Switches reside in layer 2 while hubs are layer 1 devices.
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1) Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
100-105 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons. First, the foundation of the Internet was built using the TCP/IP suite and through the spread of the World Wide Web and Internet, TCP/IP has been preferred. Second, a project researched by the Department of Defense (DOD) consisted of creating the TCP/IP protocols. The DOD’s goal was to bring international standards which could not be met by the OSI model. Since the DOD was the largest software consumer and they preferred the TCP/IP suite, most vendors used this model rather than the OSI. Below is a side by side comparison of the TCP/IP and OSI models.
100-105 dumps

Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the router.
A. A Core router.
B. The HQ Internet gateway router.
C. The WAN router at the central site.
D. Remote stub router at a remote site.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since the routing table shows only a single default route using the single interface serial 0/0, we know that this is most likely a remote stub site with a single connection to the rest of the network. All the other answer options would mean that this router would have more connections, and would contain more routes.
Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

As packets travel from Mary to Robert, which three devices will use the destination MAC address of the packet to determine a forwarding path? (Choose three.)
A. Hub1
B. Switch1
C. Router1
D. Switch2
E. Router2
F. Switch3
100-105 pdf Answer: B,D,F
Explanation:
Switches use the destination MAC address information for forwarding traffic, while routers use the destination IP address information. Local Area Networks employ Layer 2 Switches and Bridges to forward and filter network traffic. Switches and Bridges operate at the Data Link Layer of the Open System Interconnect Model (OSI). Since Switches and Bridges operate at the Layer 2 they operate more intelligently than hubs, which work at Layer 1 (Physical Layer) of the OSI. Because the switches and bridges are able to listen to the traffic on the wire to examine the source and destination MAC address. Being able to listen to the traffic also allows the switches and bridges to compile a MAC address table to better filter and forward network traffic. To accomplish the above functions switches and bridges carry out the following tasks: MAC address learning by a switch or a bridge is accomplished by the same method. The switch or bridge listens to each device connected to each of its ports and scan the incoming frame for the source MAC address. This creates a MAC address to port map that is cataloged in the switches/bridge MAC database. Another name for the MAC address table is content addressable memory or CAM table. When a switch or bridge is listening to the network traffic, it receives each frame and compares it to the MAC address table. By checking the MAC table the switch/ bridge are  able o determine which port the frame came in on. If the frame is on the MAC table the frame is filtered or transmitted on only that port. If the switch determines that the frame is not on the MAC table, the frame is forwarded out to all ports except the incoming port.
Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)  Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Ethernet networking uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detect (CSMA/CD), a protocol that helps devices share the bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time on the network medium. CSMA/CD was created to overcome the problem of those collisions that occur when packets are transmitted simultaneously from different nodes. And trust me, good collision management is crucial, because when a node transmits in a CSMA/CD network, all the other nodes on the network receive and examine that transmission. Only bridges and routers can effectively prevent a transmission from propagating throughout the entire network! So, how does the CSMA/CD protocol work? Like this: when a host wants to transmit over the network, it first checks for the presence of a digital signal on the wire. If all is clear (no other host is transmitting), the host will then proceed with its transmission. But it doesn’t stop there. The transmitting host constantly monitors the wire to make sure no other hosts begin transmitting. If the host detects another signal on the wire, it sends out an extended jam signal that causes all nodes on the segment to stop sending data (think, busy signal). The nodes respond to that jam signal by waiting a while before attempting to transmit again. Backoff algorithms determine when the colliding stations can retransmit. If collisions keep occurring after 15 tries, the nodes attempting to transmit will then time out.
Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)  Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required?
A. HTTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. Telnet
E. UDP
100-105 vce Answer: E
Explanation:
UDP provides a connectionless datagram service that offers best-effort delivery, which means that UDP does not guarantee delivery or verify sequencing for any datagrams. A source host that needs reliable communication must use either TCP or a program that provides its own sequencing and acknowledgment services.
 QUESTION NO: 18
John works as a Web Developer for ProMetaworks Inc. He creates an ASP.NET application,  named MyApp1, using Visual Studio .NET. MyApp1 contains a page, named Page1. Page1 contains several TextBox controls that accept users’ input. John uses several validation controls on the page to validate input controls. He wants to display all the validation error messages on t page in a message box. However, he does not want the validation summary to be displayed inli on the Web page. What will he do to accomplish the task?
A. Add a ValidationSummary control to the page. Set its ShowMessageBox and ShowSummary properties to true.
B. Add a ValidationSummary control to the page. Set its DisplayMode property to MessageBox
C. Add a ValidationSummary control to the page. Set its ShowMessageBox property to true and ShowSummary property to false.
D. Add a CustomValidator control to the page. Write a custom client-side script function. Set the
ClientValidationFunction property of the control to the name of the function.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
David works as a Software Developer for McRobert Inc. He develops a Windows-based application, named App1, using Visual C# .NET. The application contains a Form control, name Form1. He wants to write code to initialize class-level variables, named Var1, Var2, and Var3, a soon as Form1 is instantiated. Which of the following code will he use to accomplish this?
A. private void Form1_Initialize(System.Object sender, System.EventArgs e)
{
int Var1 = 20;
int Var2 = 40;
int Var3 = 60;
}
B. private void Form1_New(System.Object sender, System.EventArgs e)
{
int Var1 = 20;
int Var2 = 40;
int Var3 = 60;
}
C. private void Form1_Load(System.Object sender, System.EventArgs e)
{
int Var1 = 20;
int Var2 = 40;
int Var3 = 60;
}
D. private void Form1_Create(System.Object sender, System.EventArgs e)
{
 int Var1 = 20;
int Var2 = 40;
int Var3 = 60;
}
100-105 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
Ryan works as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. He creates an ASP.NET Web application named MyWebApplication using Visual Studio .NET 2005. MyWebApplication performs validation on XML files in a directory. Whenever a new XML file appears in the directory, MyWebApplication opens the file, checks it for validation, and updates it accordingly. Ryan wants to ensure that each update performed on XML files is logged in the Web application log. He creates a String object named Var1, to store the message to be logged. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. The EventLog.Source property
B. The EventLog.WriteEntry method
C. The Trace.WriteLine method
D. The EventLog.EventLogSource property
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 21
You work as a Windows Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create a Windows Forms application using .NET Framework 3.5. You need to execute a method named ProcAmount in the background of the application. The method requires that an integer value 101 is passed to it. You are required to pass an integer value 101 to start a background thread. Which of the following code segments should you use? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. ParameterizedThreadStart tStart;
tStart = new ParameterizedThreadStart(ProcAmount);
Thread thd = new Thread(tStart);
B. thd.Start(101);
C. ThreadStart tStart = new ThreadStart(ProcAmount);
Thread thd = new Thread(tStart, 101);
D. thd.Start();
100-105 dumps Answer: A
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QUESTION 103
What are the Project Procurement Management processes?
A. Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements
B. Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements
D. Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate
Procurements
101 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?
A. Ground rules
B. Expert judgment
C. Team-building activities
D. Interpersonal skills
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 105
Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?
A. Only once, at the beginning
B. At the beginning and the end
C. Once during each phase
D. Repeatedly
101 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:
A. A risk urgency assessment.
B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project documents updates
101 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
A. Cost management plan.
B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 109
Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary
101 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:
A. Decision tree diagram.
B. Tornado diagram.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Ishikawa diagram.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:
A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,
B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.
C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan.
101 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 112
Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Affinity diagram
C. Tree diagram
D. Activity network diagram
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication
technique?
A. Listening
B. Facilitation
C. Meeting management
D. Presentation
101 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?
A. Before the Define Activities process
B. During the Define Activities process
C. Before the Sequence Activities process
D. During the Sequence Activities process
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
Typical outcomes of a project include:
A. Products, services, and improvements.
B. Products, programs, and services.
C. Improvements, portfolios, and services.
D. Improvements, processes, and products.
101 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 116
Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Project assignment chart
D. Personnel assignment matrix
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 117
The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:
A. Continuous improvement.
B. Predictive planning.
C. Progressive elaboration.
D. Quality assurance.
101 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 118
An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:
A. smooth/accommodate.
B. force/direct,
C. collaborate/problem solve,
D. compromise/reconcile.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:
A. Project
B. Plan
C. Program
D. Portfolio
101 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:
A. Earned value management.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Work performance information.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?
A. Organizational process updates
B. Quality metrics
C. Change requests
D. Quality control measurements
101 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 122
A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?
A. Urgent information need
B. Sensitivity of information
C. Project environment
D. Ease of use
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 123
The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:
A. 10.
B. 12.
C. 20.
D. 24.
101 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 124
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
A. Plan Risk Management.
B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 125
Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?
A. Facilitated workshops
B. Interviews
C. Inspection
D. Meetings
101 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 126
An input to Close Project or Phase is:
A. Accepted deliverables,
B. Final products or services,
C. Document updates,
D. Work performance information.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 127
An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:
A. Deliverables.
B. Activity lists.
C. A work breakdown structure.
D. A scope statement.
101 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 128
External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:
A. Customers.
B. Business partners.
C. Sellers.
D. Functional managers.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 129
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Create VVBS
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Scope
101 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 130
In a project, total float measures the:
A. Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.
B. Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.
C. Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.
D. Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 131
Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?
A. Project Quality Management and Project Time Management
B. Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management
C. Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management
D. Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management
101 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:
A. Benefit
B. Initiative
C. Objective
D. Process
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
Which cost is associated with nonconformance?
A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment
101 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?
A. Historical relationships
B. Dependency determination
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Rolling wave planning
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline.
B. Change requests.
C. Accepted deliverables.
D. Variance analysis.
101 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 136
A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Performance reporting.
C. Bidder conferences.
D. Reserve analysis.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 137
Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
101 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 138
Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?
A. Acquisition
B. Earned value management
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Forecasting
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 139
Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?
A. Supportive
B. Directive
C. Controlling
D. Instructive
101 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 140
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?
A. Project document updates
B. Activity list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project calendars
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 141
An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:
A. The project management plan.
B. The stakeholder register.
C. Procurement documents.
D. Stakeholder analysis.
101 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 143
Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?
A. Force/direct
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Collaborate/problem solve
101 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 144
Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Decomposition
B. Modeling techniques
C. Resource optimization
D. Meetings
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:
A. Start-to-start (SS).
B. Start-to-finish (SF).
C. Finish-to-start (FS).
D. Finish-to-finish (FF).
101 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 146
Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
C. Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)
D. Time and Material (T&M)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 147
What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?
A. $50
B. $100
C. $125
D. $175
101 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 148
The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:
A. Project management plan.
B. Project charter.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Stakeholder register.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 149
Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?
A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management
B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management
C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management
101 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 150
In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:
A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.
B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.
C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.
D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 151
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:
A. Analysis
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Response
101 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 152
Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:
A. Verified deliverables.
B. Validated deliverables.
C. Acceptance criteria.
D. Activity resource requirements.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 153
An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
A. Deliverables.
B. Validated changes.
C. The change log.
D. The requirements traceability matrix.
101 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 154
During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Estimate Costs
D. Control Budget
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 155
The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:
A. Validate Scope.
B. Plan Scope Management.
C. Control Scope.
D. Define Scope.
101 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 156
Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?
A. Resource calendar
B. Scope baseline
C. Trend analysis
D. Cost baseline
Correct Answer: D

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-150 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 63
Layer 4 application mapping allows which of the following criteria to match an application: (Select 3)
A. MAC address of the host
B. IP address of the host
C. Port number
D. IP protocol
E. Application name
F. User name
200-150 exam Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
For the Cascade Profiler, what best describes a“Notification”?
A. A Notice that an Event has occurred
B. A Notice that a report is ready to be emailed
C. A Notice that a Policy has initialized
D. A Notice that a query has completed
E. All of the Above
F. None of the Above
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
Two popular data center projects that network visibility tools can assist with include:
A. Virtualization and Data Center Mobility
B. Rationalization and Irrationalization
C. Virtualization and Data Center Consolidation
D. Remote Site monitoring and Packet Exportation
E. Data Import and Data Export
200-150 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66
What is the proper way to install and license Cascade Pilot? (Select 2)
A. Ensure Internet connectivity and activate the application online during installation.
B. Install the application and activate it through the phone.
C. Install the application on your Linux or Windows system and then launch it.
D. Install the application on your Windows machine and then launch it.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 67
Which of the following dashboard widgets is most suitable for monitoring the status of an entire Service, including both front-end and back-end (server-server) segments?
A. Service Health
B. Service Health by Location
C. Watched Applications
D. Current Events
E. System Messages
200-150 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68
Once the Cascade Shark appliance has an initial configuration with an IP Address set to 10.1.1.1 you can connect to it from a web browser using the URL:
A. http://10.1.1.1
B. https://10.1.1.1
C. https://10.1.1.1:443
D. https://10.1.1.1:8080
E. http://10.1.1.1:8080
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
A company would like to have the Cascade Profiler report DNS-derived host names in reports. To allow this the Cascade Profiler must be configured by:
A. Using the Primary DNS server obtained via DHCP from the Cascade Profiler’s management interface.
B. Using the Secondary DNS server obtained via DHCP from the Cascade Profiler’s management interface.
C. Using the Tertiary DNS server obtained via DHCP from the Cascade Profiler’s management interface.
D. Using the DNS server(s) as defined in the Configuration > General Settings page.
E. Using any DNS servers the Cascade Profiler auto-discovers in the Inside Address space, found in the Configuration > DNS Settings page.
200-150 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
A trace clip created with Cascade Pilot is:
A. A packet capture (pcap) file that is open on the local file system for analysis by Cascade Pilot.
B. A packet capture (pcap) file that is exported on to the Cascade Shark OS disk for analysis by Cascade Pilot.
C. A capture job that is suspended or stopped.
D. A time filter into a job trace.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71
What is the size of the Cascade Shark appliance OS drive?
A. 250GB
B. 500GB
C. 750GB
D. 1TB
200-150 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
How can Cascade Profiler help me understand where I should be optimizing or placing
A. Cascade Profiler has “Out-of-the-box” WAN reports which provide Optimization benefits reports based upon bandwidth consumed by optimizable applications.
B. With Cascade Profiler you can run reports by Bandwidth to determine which WAN links are congested.
C. With Cascade Profiler you can run reports on interfaces that break down how much bandwidth is used by business critical applications to understand which interfaces to focus on for optimization.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
How does Cascade obtain information about Retransmissions in the network?
A. It obtains L2 retransmissions from switches and routers via SNMP.
B. It obtains TCP retransmissions by tracking TCP segments via the Sensor.
C. Both A and B.
D. Cascade does not track retransmissions.
E. Cascade obtains retransmissions from Netflow (retransmissions are sent as a flag as part of standard netflow).
200-150 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 74
Which technology can be used to determine that a TCP Reset has been sent from a server to client?
A. Packet Collection Only
B. Flow Collection Only
C. SNMP Statistics Only
D. Flow Collection or Packet Collection
E. SNMP Statistics or Packet Collection
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 75
What version of Windows is/are supported by the Cascade Active Directory Connector? (Select 2)
A. NT 4.0
B. Windows Server 2003
C. Windows Server 2008
D. Windows Server 2005
E. A & D
200-150 pdf Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
Authentication mechanisms supported by the Cascade Profiler arE. (Select 2)
A. Local user accounts
B. Active Directory
C. TACACS+
D. RADIUS
E. LDAP
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77
What are the supported speeds on the Cascade management interfaces?
A. 100/1000Mbps
B. 1000Mbps
C. 10/100Mbps
D. 10/100/1000Mbps
E. 10000Mbps
200-150 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
Alerts triggered in Cascade Profiler are distributed to recipients by Cascade Profiler using which mechanism(s):
A. None, alerts are accessible via the Cascade GUI only
B. SNMP traps only
C. SMTP email only
D. Pager only
E. One of SMTP email or SNMP trap but not both
F. SNMP traps and SMTP mail, each one optional, both allowed
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
What is the value provided by creating host groups in Cascade Profiler? (Select 2)
A. You can track, report and alert on organizationally meaningful categories of traffic
B. To control access to Cascade data
C. To quickly quarantine hosts affected by a virus
D. To increase the scalability of the Cascade database
E. To view the traffic of many hosts from multiple perspectives
200-150 exam Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 80
In Cascade Profiler, how many items can be displayed in a single watched list in a Dashboard Content Block?
A. Unlimited
B. 10
C. 4
D. 20
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81
What is a benefit of Cascade’s Deep-Packet Inspection? (Select 4)
A. Cascade can determine every URL that a client goes to out on the internet.
B. Cascade can identify applications at Layer7 which will aid in determining business versus non business use-age of resources.
C. Cascade can identify applications that use multiple common ports based upon Layer7 to more readily track application dependencies.
D. Cascade can be configured with URLs, match those URL’s to application names and, in order to understand which applications are utilized on web servers that host multiple web applications over the same TCP port.
E. Cascade can identify unencrypted applications such as FTP and TELNET regardless of port number, and other applications (such as Peer to Peer) that may violate a company’s security policies.
200-150 dumps Answer: B,C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
In order to work with live traffic on the Cascade Shark from Cascade Pilot:
A. You MUST connect to the Cascade Shark through its web interface, export packets to a packet capture (pcap) file, then from within Cascade Pilot you can open the pcap file.
B. You MUST use a Cascade Gateway to view packet data on Cascade Shark.
C. You MUST use a Cascade Profiler to view packet data on Cascade Shark.
D. You can simply connect to the Cascade Shark appliance directly from Cascade Pilot provided that proper network communication is available between Cascade Pilot and Cascade Shark.
E. You can simply connect to the Cascade Shark appliance directly from Cascade Pilot provided that a capture job has already been configured from the Cascade Shark Web Interface and proper network communication is available.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83
An interactive view within Cascade Pilot is:
A. A downloadable customized view from the online Cascade community.
B. Any view that is applied to live devices and dynamically updated.
C. A view that can be created after drill-down from one view to another.
D. Any view that was created by applying a traffic filter.
E. All views within Cascade Pilot are considered interactive views.
200-150 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
A host information on Cascade Profiler report is a series of reports within a report that provides useful information about what is known about a host. The host information report can be run through which of the following mechanisms?
A. Entering the IP address of hostname of the host in the quick report box at the top level GUI page.
B. Right-clicking on any host link from a dashboard or report, and selecting host information.
C. Go to reports –> shortcuts –> built-in –> host information.
D. Selecting the host information Report by option from the advanced traffic reporting tab.
E. All of the above.
F. A, B, and C only.
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
Which of the following are valid Dashboard Content Block Types? (Select 3)
A. Service Health
B. Watched Traffic
C. WAN Utilization
D. Service Map
E. Security Threats
200-150 vce Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 86
Cascade Profiler encrypts data at rest with.
A. the same encryption strength and protocol selected for sending data from Gateways and Sensors to Profiler.
B. always 256bit AES, accept for international customers who are not eligible for encryption.
C. Cascade does not encrypt data while at rest.
D. Configurable under Definitions ? Encryption.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87
Assuming that all product features are implemented and enabled, what are the three default Dashboards? (Select 3)
A. Network Operations Dashboard
B. WAN Optimization Dashboard
C. Internet Access Dashboard
D. Network Security Dashboard
E. Datacenter Utility Dashboard
F. Service Dashboard
200-150 exam Answer: A,D,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 88
How many simultaneous users can access Cascade Profiler?
A. Ten
B. Four
C. Unlimited
D. Twenty
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 89
What syntax is used to define Host Groups within Cascade Profiler?
A. Name followed by list of Ports
B. Name followed by several Subnets
C. Name followed by Subnet
D. Subnet followed by name
E. Name followed by Subnet followed by Port
200-150 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90
Which of the following is a supported alerting mechanism for events?
A. BGP
B. Windows Messenger
C. SMTP
D. IM
E. Skype
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
Which fields are generally available for export using NetFlow technology? (Select 3)
A. Source and Destination IP Address of endstations
B. Source and Destination MAC Address of endstations
C. Source and Destination Hardware Port Numbers of endstations
D. Source and Destination UDP or TCP Port Numbers
E. TCP Flags used
200-150 pdf Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 92
A Watch in Cascade Pilot: (Select 3)
A. Is a graphic object used to show selected and global time windows for the applied View.
B. Can be applied to both live captures and saved pcap files.
C. Is a feature that allows a user to be notified when a specified event occurs on the network.
D. Can send a syslog message when an event is triggered.
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93
A filter can be created in Cascade Pilot:
A. By importing a display or capture filter from Wireshark.
B. By saving the filter applied in a View.
C. Only when you are connected to a Cascade Shark.
D. Only before applying a View.
200-150 vce Answer: B
Explanation:

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-412 Dumps Exam Q&As:
QUESTION 69
You have a server named SCI that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Shadow copies are enabled on all volumes. You need to delete a specific shadow copy. The solution must minimize server downtime. Which tool should you use?
A. Shadow
B. Diskshadow
C. Wbadmin
D. Diskpart
70-412 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DiskShadow.exe is a tool that exposes the functionality offered by the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS). The diskshadow command delete shadows deletes shadow copies.
70-412 dumps
QUESTION 70
You have 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create a Windows PowerShell script that registers each server in Windows Azure Backup and sets an encryption passphrase. Which two PowerShell cmdlets should you run in the script? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. New-OBPolicy
B. New-OBRetentionPolicy
C. Add-OBFileSpec
D. Start-OBRegistration
E. Set OBMachineSetting
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
D: Start-OBRegistration
Registers the current computer with Windows Azure Online Backup using the credentials (user- name and password) created during enrollment.
E: The Set-OBMachineSetting cmdlet sets a OBMachineSetting object for the server that in- cludes proxy server settings for accessing the internet, network bandwidth throttling settings, and the encryption passphrase that is required to decrypt the files during recovery to another server.
Incorrect:
Not C: TheAdd-OBFileSpeccmdlet adds theOBFileSpecobject, which specifies the items to in- clude or exclude from a backup, to the backup policy (OBPolicyobject). TheOBFileSpecobject can include or exclude multiple files, folders, or volumes. T Reference: Start-OBRegistration; Set OBMachineSetting
QUESTION 71
You have 30 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the servers are backed up daily by using Windows Azure Online Backup. You need to perform an immediate backup of all the servers to Windows Azure Online Backup. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run on each server?
A. Get-OBPolicy | StartOBBackup
B. Start-OBRegistration | StartOBBackup
C. Get-WBPolicy | Start-WBBackup
D. Get-WBBackupTarget | Start-WBBackup
70-412 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This example starts a backup job using a policy.
Windows PowerShell
PS C:\> Get-OBPolicy | Start-OBBackup
Incorrect:
Not B. Registers the current computer to Windows Azure Backup.
Not C. Not using Azure
Not D. Not using Azure
Reference: Start-OBBackup
QUESTION 72
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and is used for testing. A developer at your company creates and installs an unsigned kernel-mode driver on Server1. The developer reports that Server1 will no longer start. You need to ensure that the developer can test the new driver. The solution must minimize the amount of data loss. Which Advanced Boot Option should you select?
A. Disable Driver Signature Enforcement
B. Disable automatic restart on system failure
C. Last Know Good Configuration (advanced)
D. Repair Your Computer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. By default, 64-bit versions of Windows Vista and later versions of Windows will load a ker- nel-mode driver only if the kernel can verify the driver signature. However, this default behavior can be disabled to facilitate early driver development and non-automated testing.
70-412 dumps
Incorrect:
Not B. specifies that Windows automatically restarts your computer when a failure occurs Not C. Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed Not D. Removes or repairs critical windows files, Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed and some file loss
Reference: Installing Windows Server 2012
QUESTION 73
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. When you install a custom Application on Server1 and restart the server, you receive the follow- ing error message: “The Boot Configuration Data file is missing some required information.
File: \Boot\BCD
Error code: 0x0000034.”
You start Server1 by using Windows RE. You need to ensure that you can start Windows Server 2012 R2 on Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. Bootsect
B. Bootim
C. Bootrec
D. Bootcfg
70-412 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Bootrec.exe tool to troubleshoot “Bootmgr Is Missing” issue. The /ScanOs option scans all disks for installations that are compatible with Windows Vista or Windows 7. Additionally, this option displays the entries that are currently not in the BCD store. Use this option when there are Windows Vista or Windows 7 installations that the Boot Manager menu does not list.
* Error code 0x0000034 while booting.
Resolution:
1. Put the Windows Windows 7 installation disc in the disc drive, and then start the computer.
2. Press any key when the message indicating “Press any key to boot from CD or DVD …”. appears.
3. Select a language, time, currency, and a keyboard or another input method. Then click Next.
4. Click Repair your computer.
5. Click the operating system that you want to repair, and then click Next.
6. In the System Recovery Options dialog box, click Command Prompt.
7. Type Bootrec /RebuildBcd, and then press ENTER.
Incorrect:
Not A. Bootsect.exe updates the master boot code for hard disk partitions to switch between BOOTMGR and NTLDR. You can use this tool to restore the boot sector on your computer. This tool replaces FixFAT and FixNTFS.
Not D. The bootcfg command is a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 utility that modifies the Boot.ini file.
Reference: Bootsect Command-Line Options
QUESTION 74
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?
A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
A. Cost variance (CV)
B. Cost performance index (CPI)
C. Budget at completion (BAC)
D. Variance at completion (VAC)
70-412 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
A. Organizational process assets and the project charter,
B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.
C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams.
D. Activity attributes and resource calendars.
70-412 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
70-412 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management
70-412 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
A. Change control tools
B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:
A. Work packages.
B. Accepted deliverables.
C. The WBS dictionary.
D. The scope baseline.
70-412 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
A. Project Cost Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Integration Management
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. Completion
70-412 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
70-412 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
When should quality planning be performed?
A. While developing the project charter
B. In parallel with the other planning processes
C. As part of a detailed risk analysis
D. As a separate step from the other planning processes
70-412 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
A. The best use of communication methods.
B. An efficient and effective communication flow.
C. Project costs to be reduced.
D. The best use of communication technology.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 91
The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:
A. Human resource management plan.
B. Activity resource requirements.
C. Personnel assessment tools,
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
70-412 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
A. Control Schedule.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Activities.
D. Develop Schedule.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Work performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Context diagrams
70-412 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
The organization’s perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
A. Responses
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Attitude
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
A. change requests
B. enterprise environmental factors
C. the stakeholder management plan
D. the change log
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
70-412 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Source selection criteria.
B. Market research.
C. A stakeholder register.
D. A records management system.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks
70-412 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 99
Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
A. Close Project or Phase
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
70-412 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
A regression line is used to estimate:
A. Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
C. The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.
D. The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
An input to Conduct Procurements is:
A. Independent estimates.
B. Selected sellers.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Resource calendars.
70-412 exam Correct Answer: C

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 79
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

How many bytes are added to each frame as a result of the configuration?
A. 4-bytes except the native VLAN
B. 8-bytes except the native VLAN
C. 4-bytes including native VLAN
D. 8-bytes including native VLAN
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN. A VLAN tag adds 4 bytes to the frame. Two bytes are used for the tag protocol identifier (TPID), the other two bytes for tag control information (TCI).
QUESTION 80
A network engineer configured a fault-tolerance link on Gigabit Ethernet links G0/1, G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 between two switches using Ethernet port-channel. Which action allows interface G0/1 to always actively forward traffic in the port-channel?
A. Configure G0/1 as half duplex and G0/2 as full duplex.
B. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 1.
C. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 65535.
D. LACP traffic goes through G0/4 because it is the highest interface ID.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A LACP port priority is configured on each port using LACP. The port priority can be configured automatically or through the CLI. LACP uses the port priority with the port number to form the port identifier. The port priority determines which ports should be put in standby mode when there is a hardware limitation that prevents all compatible ports from aggregating. The higher the number, the lower the priority. The valid range is from 1 to 65535. The default is 32768.
QUESTION 81
Which statement about the use of PAgP link aggregation on a Cisco switch that is running Cisco IOS Software is true?
A. PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
B. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
C. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-active, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
D. PAgP modes are off, active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-auto, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. The PAgP modes are explained below.
1. on: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to come up.
2. off: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to remain down.
3. auto: PAgP is running passively. The formation of a channel is desired; however, it is not initiated.
4. desirable: PAgP is running actively. The formation of a channel is desired and ini- tiated. Only the combinations of auto-desirable, desirable-desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. If a device on one side of the channel does not support PAgP, such as a router, the device on the other side must have PAgP set to on.
QUESTION 82
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

Which EtherChannel negotiation protocol is configured on the interface f0/13 f0/15?
A. Link Combination Control Protocol
B. Port Aggregation Protocol
C. Port Combination Protocol
D. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. .
1. on: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to come up.
2. off: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to remain down.
3. auto: PAgP is running passively. The formation of a channel is desired; however, it is not initiated.
4. desirable: PAgP is running actively. The formation of a channel is desired and ini- tiated.
The Link Aggregate Control Protocol (LACP) trunking supports four modes of operation:
On: The link aggregation is forced to be formed without any LACP negotiation .In other words, the switch neither sends the LACP packet nor processes any inbound LACP packet. This is similar to the on state for PAgP.
Off: The link aggregation is not formed. We do not send or understand the LACP packet. This is similar to the off state for PAgP.
Passive: The switch does not initiate the channel but does understand inbound LACP packets. The peer (in active state) initiates negotiation (when it sends out an LACP packet) which we receive and answer, eventually to form the aggregation channel with the peer. This is similar to the auto mode in PAgP.
Active: We can form an aggregate link and initiate the negotiation. The link aggregate is formed if the other end runs in LACP active or passive mode. This is similar to the desir- able mode of PAgP. In this example, we see that fa 0/13, fa0/14, and fa0/15 are all in Port Channel 12, which is operating in desirable mode, which is only a PAgP mode.
QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an EtherChannel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here: Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac):
However, traffic is still slow. Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug on the switch.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Since this traffic is coming from PC-1, the source MAC address will always be that of PC-1, and since the load balancing method is source MAC, traffic will only be using one of the port channel links. The load balancing method should be changed to destination MAC, since the web server has two NICs traffic will be load balanced across both MAC addresses.
QUESTION 84
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but not the duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PAgP aids in the automatic creation of EtherChannel links. PAgP packets are sent between EtherChannel-capable ports in order to negotiate the formation of a channel. Some restrictions are deliberately introduced into PAgP. The restrictions are: PAgP does not form a bundle on ports that are configured for dynamic VLANs. PAgP requires that all ports in the channel belong to the same VLAN or are configured as trunk ports. When a bundle already exists and a VLAN of a port is modified, all ports in the bundle are modified to match that VLAN. PAgP does not group ports that operate at different speeds or port duplex. If speed and duplex change when a bundle exists, PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle. PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel. The device on the other side must have PAgP set to on if a device on one side of the channel does not support PAgP, such as a router. Reference: 
QUESTION 85 Which of the following are well-known MTAs?
A. Procmail
B. Sendmail
C. Netscape
D. Pine
E. Qmail
300-115 vce Answer: BE
QUESTION 86 The MX record for a domain is set to: “IN MX 10 mail.company.com”. What additional record types, if
any, are required for the machine mail.company.com?
A. mail.company.com should have a CNAME record
B. mail.company.com should have no other records
C. mail.company.com should have an A record
D. mail.company.com should have both a CNAME and a PTR record
E. mail.company.com should have both a CNAME and an A record
Answer: C
QUESTION 87 Which of the following files are checked and/or modified to restrict POP access to machines only in the domain company.com?
A. /etc/hosts
B. /etc/inetd.conf
C. /etc/services
D. /etc/hosts.allow
E. /etc/hosts.deny
300-115 exam Answer: BDE
QUESTION 88 Which of the following would NOT be an effective way for an e-mail user to prevent spam?
A. Creating a mail filter based on the mail header
B. Creating a mail filter against usernames with irregular capitalization
C. Creating a mail filter against mail from a specific user name
D. Using Procmail
Answer: C
QUESTION 89 Which of the following are reasonable steps for a system administrator to take to reduce the amount of spam received by users of an e-mail system?
A. Only accept e-mail from trusted hosts
B. Only accept inbound e-mail for users in this domain
C. Use the DNS blacklist service to refuse e-mail from known spam sources
D. Disable any accounts which receive spam
E. Filter e-mail headers for known spam subject lines
300-115 dumps Answer: BCE
QUESTION 90 Which of the following is not a valid delivery line for .qmail?
A. # this is a comment
B. |/usr/bin/vacation jsmith
C. &joesmith
D. &[email protected]
E. /home/jsmith/mail/archive
Answer: C
QUESTION 91 What function does OSTYPE in the generic-linux.mc macro provide during Sendmail installation?
A. It optimizes Sendmail to properly use memory allocations specific to an operating system
B. It sets some path names specifically for the operating system
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to for processing
D. It specifies the operating system of connecting mail servers
E. It denies privileges to operating systems with Sendmail security issues
300-115 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 92 What does the divert command in the generic-linux.mc file do?
A. It handles all user .forward files
B. It controls the addition of text from the generic-linux.mc file to the output file or internal text buffers
C. It redirects e-mail to a third party mail server
D. It changes the header information of incoming messages and resends them
E. It copies e-mail locally and sends it to another mail server
Answer: B
QUESTION 93 Which of the following will result if “dnl” is included after each command in the generic-linux.mc file?
A. The text from “dnl” until the end of that line is ignored
B. DNS will not be used in resolving the address to the host mail server
C. Mail can only be sent to servers named in the /etc/hosts and /etc/networks files
D. All commands that do not have “dnl” after each line are applied locally
E. The command on the next line is not executed
300-115 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 94 An e-mail system has been configured to use the DNS Blacklist (DNSBL) service. What additional
step is performed by the system as a result?
A. It checks the user’s e-mail account against the deny spam database Web site
B. It sends a list of known spammers to a recipient requesting the information to be added to their mail filters
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to based on the DNSBL database
D. It keeps track of recipients who requested to be removed from mass mailings
E. It checks the IP of each connection from which it is receiving mail against entries in the DNSBL
database
Answer: E

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Question No : 16 – (Topic 1) Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
200-105 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP)
 Introduction
VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst series products.
Question No : 17 – (Topic 1) Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Answer: B,D,E
 Explanation:
By default, all ports on a new switch belong to VLAN 1 (default & native VLAN). There are also some well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring…) configured by default -> A is not correct. To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router
or Layer 3 switch -> B is correct. VLANs don’t affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct. Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use 192.168.1.0/24 for VLAN 1, 192.168.2.0/24 for VLAN 2 -> D is correct. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the switch look-ups its bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct. We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1) Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
200-105 dumps Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Understanding Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (802.1w)
 Port States
There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state. RSTP only has 3 port states which are discarding, learning and forwarding. When RSTP has converged there are only 2 port states left: discarding and forwarding.
200-105 dumps
Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E are correct. The command “show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about VLAN 30. We don’t know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct. The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge
priority 32768 -> C is correct. All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type “p2p”, which means Point-to  point environment – not a shared media -> D is not correct. The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct.
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1) Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
200-105 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
Spanning Tree from PVST+ to Rapid-PVST Migration Configuration Example
Reference 1:
Reference 2:
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.
200-105 dumps
Background Information
802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) has a drawback of slow convergence. Cisco Catalyst switches support three types of STPs, which are PVST+, rapid-PVST+ and MST. PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D standard and includes Cisco proprietary extensions such as BackboneFast, UplinkFast, and PortFast. Rapid-PVST+ is based on IEEE 802.1w
standard and has a faster convergence than 802.1D. RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) natively includes most of the Cisco proprietary enhancements to the 802.1D Spanning Tree, such as BackboneFast and UplinkFast. Rapid-PVST+ has these unique features: Uses Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) version 2 which is backward compatible with the
802.1D STP, which uses BPDU version 0. All the switches generate BPDUs and send out on all the ports every 2 seconds, whereas in 802.1D STP only the root bridge sends the configuration BPDUs.
Port Roles—Root port, designated port, alternate port and backup port.
Port States—Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding.
Port Types—Edge Port (PortFast), Point-to-Point and Shared port.
Rapid-PVST uses RSTP to provide faster convergence. When any RSTP port receives legacy 802.1D BPDU, it falls back to legacy STP and the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.
Question No : 21 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Answer: C
Explanation:
In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has a lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of Switch4) so both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4. Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives from Switch3. A BPDU is superior than another if it has:
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A lower Sending Port ID
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by Switch3 have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID. The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port index). In this case the port priorities are equal because they
use the default value, so Switch4 will compare port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is inferior to Fa0/1, Switch4 will select the port connected with Fa0/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the other port -> Port fa0/11 of Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role)
QUESTION 22:
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of a bus topology network?
A. Difficult to troubleshoot
B. Expensive to implement
C. Attenuation
D. Signal interference
200-105 exam Answer:
QUESTION 23:
Which of the following are advantages of a bus topology?
A. Easy to troubleshoot failures
B. Failures are always limited to a single node
C. Inexpensive to implement
D. No network congestion
Answer:
QUESTION 24:
The acronym CSMA stands for:
A. Call signal multiple access.
B. Carrier sense multiple access.
C. Call signal message active.
D. Carrier sense message active.
200-105 dumps Answer:
QUESTION 25:
Ethernet LANs use which of the following?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/CD
C. Token passing
D. Token bus
Answer:
QUESTION 26:
CSMA/CD is based on which IEEE standard?
A. 802.3
B. 802.4
C. 802.5
D. 802.6
200-105 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 27:
The star topology is different from buses and rings in that:
A. All data flows through a central hub.
B. Data never passes through a single central point.
C. The star topology allows only limited network control.
D. The star topology is harder to expand.
Answer: A
QUESTION 28:
Which of the following can be used to connect nodes to the network in a star topology?
A. Transceivers
B. Multistation access units
C. Switches
D. Access point
200-105 vce Answer:
QUESTION 29:
Which of the following represents a single point of failure in a star topology?
A. Backbone cable
B. Hub
C. Transceiver
D. Nodes
Answer:
QUESTION 30:
Ring topologies almost always use:
A. Token passing.
B. CSMA/CD.
C. CSMA/CA.
D. Token sharing.
200-105 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 31:
Like the physical bus topology, the physical ring topology:
A. Joins a single cable to form a continuous loop.
B. Connects all nodes along a single cable.
C. Uses a central concentrator.
D. Does not broadcast signals.
Answer:
QUESTION 32:
The 802.5 IEEE standard defines the operation of which topology?
A. Token bus
B. Token ring
C. Bus
D. Star
Answer: B
QUESTION 33:
Token ring networks operate according to the rules of which IEEE standard?
A. 802.3
B. 802.4
C. 802.5
D. 802.6
200-105 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 34:
Ethernet 10BaseT is designed to use which physical topology?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Tree
Answer: B
QUESTION 35:
Which of the following topologies is an expansion of the bus topology suitable for broadband transmissions?
A. Ring
B. Star
C. Mesh
D. Tree
200-105 pdf Answer:

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Exam Code: 200-355
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Q&As: 421

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QUESTION 103
Which statement about ZigBee technology is true?
A. It has low power consumption.
B. It is designed only for point-to-point communications.
C. It ranges up to 250 meters.
D. It supports data rates up to 1 and 2 Mb/s.
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 104
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 105
What three components must be the same on a controller and the RADIUS server when adding a RADIUS
server to a WLC? (Choose three.)
A. Username
B. Shared Secret
C. Index Priority
D. Port Number
E. IP Address
F. Network Mask
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 106
A lightweight AP has been deployed in local mode in a network that consists of 10 wireless LAN controllers
in a single mobility group. The AP has been configured to use primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco
WLCs. Due to a major power failure, all those Cisco WLCs are unavailable.
Which step does the AP take next?
A. The AP reboots and repeatedly attempts to join the configured primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco
WLCs in that order. The process continues until one of the configured Cisco WLCs is available.
B. The AP attempts to join a Cisco WLC configured as a master controller.
C. The AP attempts to join the Cisco WLC that has the greatest capacity available.
D. The AP state transitions to AP Fallback Mode and continues to provide limited WLAN services (that is,
no new client authentications) until a Cisco WLC is available.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
What AnyConnect module can be used to provide a detailed scan list of the Wi-Fi environment?
A. DART
B. Telemetry
C. Web Security
D. NAM
E. Posture
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
What is the equivalent of 26 dBm in milliwatts?
A. 4 mW
B. 40 mW
C. 100 mW
D. 400 mW
E. 1000 mW
Correct Answer: D
 QUESTION 109
What is “Peer Affinity” on an Interceptor appliance?
A. Which parallel Interceptor appliance an Interceptor appliance is most likely to forward traffic to
B. Deciding which of the two serial Interceptors handles more traffic
C. Matching remote Steelhead appliances to a local Steelhead appliance
D. The shipyard from which Riverbed is most likely to ship Interceptor appliances
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 110
Which logging severity levels are supported by the CMC appliance? (Select 4)
A. Emergency
B. Educational
C. Info
D. Notice
E. Critical
200-355 vce Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 111
Which user roles and permissions are supported by the CMC appliance? (Select 3)
A. Read-Only
B. Read/Write
C. Write-Only
D. Deny
E. Accept
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 112
How many versions of CMC appliance software images can reside on the CMC simultaneously?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
E. 1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
When registering a Steelhead appliance to the CMC appliance, which of the following options are
available? (Select 4)
A. IP address
B. Serial Number
C. Username
D. License
E. Group
200-355 exam Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 114
What is the baud-rate of the console port on the CMC appliance?
A. 1200
B. 2400
C. 4800
D. 9600
E. 19200
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
Which of the following configuration policies are supported on the CMC appliance? (Select 4)
A. Security Policy
B. Optimization Policy
C. System Setting Policy
D. License Policy
E. Networking Policy
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 116
Which of the following are configurable in the CMC appliance Jump-Start Wizard? (Select 4)
A. IP address
B. Netmask
C. Steelhead appliance model number
D. Default gateway
E. Administrator password
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 117
What is visible on the CMC appliance home page dashboard? (Select 4)
A. CMC appliance model
B. CMC appliance version
C. Logout
D. Reset
E. User Logged in
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 118
What is the default CMC appliance name resolved by the Steelhead appliance for initial configuration?
A. cmc-riverbed
B. riverbed-cmc
C. cmc.riverbed.nbttech
D. riverbed.cmc
E. riverbedcmc
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 119
Which of the following reports are available on the CMC appliance? (Select 4)
A. Optimized Throughput
B. Traffic Summary
C. Current Connections
D. Connection History
E. Data Store Hit Rate
200-355 vce Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 120
What parameters are required to add a new Steelhead appliance on the CMC appliance? (Select 2)
A. Hostname
B. IP address
C. Serial number
D. Sport ID
E. User name and password
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 121
When upgrading a Steelhead appliance from the CMC appliance what methodologies can be used? (Select 2)
A. Upgrade from uploaded image
B. Upgrade from the CMC appliance flash
C. Automatic download from support.riverbed.com
D. Upgrade from URL
E. Upgrade from TFTP server
200-355 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 122
What interface on the CMC appliance is required for the initial configuration?
A. In-path interface
B. AUX interface
C. WAN interface
D. Primary interface
E. LAN interface
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 123
Which of the following is true regarding the CMC appliance?
A. Can be configured using its default IP address of 192.168.1.1
B. Can be initially set up via the CLI
C. Can be initially setup via the AUX interface
D. Can be initially set up via telnet
E. Both C and D
Correct Answer: B

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[Free Cisco Dumps&PDF] Latest Free Cisco CCNA 210-255 Dumps SECOPS Exam Answers Under Cisco Certified Professionals With Youtube Guide

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Exam Code: 210-255
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Q&As: 80

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QUESTION: 33
Which of the following types of AP adoption require that DHCP services be enabled on the AP’s native VLAN?
A. Layer 1 Adoption
B. Layer 2 Adoption
C. Layer 3 Adoption
D. Access Layer Adoption
E. Logical Layer Adoption
210-255 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 34
You have just received a call from a customer who explains that the mobile computers on his
WLAN:
– Are associating properly
– Have layer 3 connectivity
– Are NOT reaching a server on the destination network
The IP address of the RFS controller is 192.168.0.2 and the IP address of the remote server is 192.168.2.117. Which of the following, when performed, would allow the mobile computers to reach the destination network?
A. Add the following route: 0.0.0.0/0 192.168.1.1
B. Add the following route: 0.0.0.0/0 192.168.0.1
C. Add the following route: 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.0/24
D. Add the following route: 255.255.255.255/24 192.168.0.1
Answer: C
QUESTION: 35
After the initial deployment of a customer’s WLAN you attempt to verify that test AP Radios 1 and 2 are operational. You have assigned Radio 1 (2.4 GHz) to use the SSID “WLAN1” and Radio 2 (5 GHz) to use the SSID “WLAN2”. You perform a simple site survey using LANPlanner. LANPlanner plots the signal strength footprint of WLAN1 with no problem but WLAN2 does not show up in the LANPlanner heat map display. Based on the Wireless Configuration screen shown in Exhibit B.3.2.02 at the bottom, what are the most likely causes of this condition (select TWO)?
A. The “default” QoS policy is in use.
B. The SSID has been assigned to the wrong VLAN
C. The Broadcast SSID feature has been disabled.
D. The current configuration has not been pushed to the AP. E. The Allow RADIUS Override feature has been disabled.
F. The Answer Broadcast Probes feature has been disabled
210-255 dumps Answer: C, F
QUESTION: 36
You have deployed a Motorola WiNG 5 WLAN solution at the site of a new customer. Someone from the IT group of the customer will be designated the platform owner and will need to have the most robust set of administrative rights. To which administrative role would you assign to this individual?
A. Monitor
B. System
C. Network
D. Security
E. Superuser
F. Help Desk
Answer: E
QUESTION: 37
Following the installation of an RFS4000 controller with AP650 APs you use a popular WLAN discovery application to capture and display traffic to and from one of the APs. You notice that the majority of the transmitted frames are being sent at a very low speed, as shown in image below, even though the 802.11n connection supports a 130 Nbps signaling rate. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
A. Non-unicast traffic is being transmitted at Lowest Configured Basic Rate.
B. A “Tar Pit” style Wireless Denial of Service (DoS) attack is underway from a nearby intruder.
C. Beacons are always transmitted at 1 Mbps. Acknowledgements to the Beacons must be sent at the same speed.
D. An ACL policy has been configured to allow only 1 Mbps traffic, with the exception of Null Data frames, to traverse the Native VLAN.
210-255 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 38
You have just completed the collection of Live RF measurement data using LANPlanner for the purpose of verifying the performance of a newly upgraded WLAN deployment. The customers reason for upgrading the previous system was to support VoWLAN in a multi-tenant office building using Motorola EWP3000 Smartphones. The original installation plan calls for an RSSI of -62 dBm from one primary AP per channel, with co-channel interference from nearby APs at a level of, no greater than, -85 dBm. In order to verify this condition you are checking 2.4 GHz Channel 11 and some additional overlapping channels which seem to have been misconfigured by neighboring WLANs. Using the LANPlanner information shown in the two exhibits at the bottom, which of the following APs satisfies the requirements for a VoWLAN deployment using the prerequisites shown above?
A. 00:14:6A:07:F1:90 in Region 1
B. 00:A0: FS:BB: F6:60 in Region 2
C. 00:14:69:F2:B0:30 in Region 2
D. 00:A0: FS: BB:F6:60 in Region 1
E. 00:14:69:F2:B0:30 in Region 3
Answer: D
QUESTION: 39
After deploying a new 802.11n WLAN you use a popular WLAN Discovery tool to analyze the channel settings being used in the vicinity. Using the information shown in the image below, which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the use of channels in this area?
A. SSID WLAN1a is using 36 MHz channels
B. SSID Zinc is using 20/40 MHz channels 149 and 153
C. MAC address nex-G:6c:32:a2 is using an 802.11b-only reserved channel.
D. MAC address KENDIN:cf:ca:7d is using a channel which is illegal in ETSI nations.
210-255 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 40
You have been asked to cover a long narrow corridor and are determining the types of antennas to install. All of the following antennas are suitable for this location,
EXCEPT:
A. Wall mount Patch Antenna
B. Omni Directional
C. Leaky Feeder
D. Yagi
Answer: A
QUESTION: 41
A customer is looking to install a new Motorola Solutions wireless infrastructure along with purchasing new Motorola Solutions 802.11a/b/g mobile computers for a warehouse. Your account team has recommended the Motorola Solutions RFS6000 with AP650 s because of the latest S02.11n technology. The customer has asked what the benefit would be by putting in an 802.11n wireless infrastructure when they aren’t sing 802.11n clients. You are preparing a justification. All of the following are valid responses, EXCEPT:
A. 802.11n is backward compatible to legacy 802.11a/b/g clients.
B. 802.11n provides a larger coverage area for legacy 802.11a/b/g clients at higher data rates (36Mb/s, 54Mb/s).
C. Installing an 802.11n infrastructure provides better TCO and scalability for any future 802.11n clients that are added later.
D. An 802.11n wireless infrastructure automatically upgrades the radios in the mobile computers to 802.11n and allows them to take advantage of all the 802.lln features.
210-255 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 42
You are positioning an AP on the 4th floor of a multi floor building. The site survey indicated that there are concrete floors, a concrete block wall on one side of the room, and a sheetrock wall on the other end of that room. Which of these obstacles will attenuate the signal the most?
A. The sheetrock wall
B. Concrete cinder block wall
C. Concrete floors at each level
D. Depends on how close the AP is to each item
210-255 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 43
After setting up the WLAN according to the site survey, you observe unanticipated RF interference which can be neither eliminated nor avoided. In this situation what could be done to mitigate the effect on throughput?
A. Eliminate all security mechanisms
B. Change the network type to an IBSS
C. Adjust fragmentation to require larger frames
D. Adjust fragmentation to require smaller frames
Answer: A

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[Free Microsoft Dumps&PDF] Latest Microsoft 70-773 Dumps Vce Exam Question Preparation Materials Are Based On The Real Exam Video Study

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Exam Code: 70-773
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION NO: 82
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class BaseC
{
int *ptr;
public:
BaseC() { ptr = new int(10);}
BaseC(int i) { ptr = new int(i); }
~BaseC() { delete ptr; }
void Print() { cout << *ptr; }
};
int main()
{
BaseC *o = new BaseC(5);
o?>Print();
}
A. It prints: 5
B. It prints: 10
C. It prints: 1
D. It prints: 0
70-773 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 83
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
const char *s;
char str[] = “Hello “;
s = str;
while(*s) {
cout << *++s;
*s++;
}
return 0;
}
A. It will print:”el ”
B. The code will not compile.
C. It will print:”Hello ”
D. It will print garbage value
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class A {
public :
void print() {
cout << “A “;
}
};
class B {
public :
void print() {
cout << “B “;
}
};
int main() {
B sc[2];
A *bc = (A*)sc;
for (int i=0; i<2;i++)
(bc++)->print();
return 0;
}
A. It prints: A A
B. It prints: B B
C. It prints: A B
D. It prints: B A
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 85
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int x,y=10;
float f;
f = 5.20;
x=(int) f;
cout << x <<“, “;
f=float (y);
cout << f;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 5, 10
B. It prints: 5.2, 10
C. It prints: 5.20, 10.0
D. It prints: 5.2, 10.00
70-773 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 86
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int op(int x, int y)
{
return x?y;
}
int op(int x, float y)
{
return x+y;
}
int main()
{
int i=1, j=2, k, l;
float f=0.23;
k = op(i, j);
l = op(j, f);
cout<< k << “,” << l;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: ?1,?1
B. It prints: ?1,3
C. It prints: ?1,2
D. Compilation fails
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 87
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. A function can be defined inside another function
B. A function may have any number of return statements each returning different values.
C. A function can return floating point value
D. In a function two return statements should never occur.
70-773 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 88
Which code, inserted at line 15, generates the output “5 Bob”?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
class B;
class A {
int age;
public:
A () { age=5; };
friend void Print(A &ob, B &so);
};
class B {
string name;
public:
B () { name=”Bob”; };
//insert code here
};
void Print(A &ob, B &so) {
cout<<ob.age << ” ” << so.name;
}
int main () {
A a;
B b;
Print(a,b);
return 0;
}
A. friend void Print(A ob, B so);
B. friend void Print(A &ob, B &so);
C. friend void Print(A *ob, B *so);
D. None of these
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 89
What is the output of the program if characters ‘t’, ‘e’, ‘s’ and ‘t’ enter are supplied as input?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
string s;
getline( cin, s );
cout << s << ” ” << s.length();
return( 0 );
}
A. It prints: test 4
B. It prints: test
C. It prints: test 5
D. It prints: 4
70-773 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 90
What happens if character 3 is entered as input?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class A {
public:
int i;
};
int main () {
int c;
A obj;
obj.i = 5;
cin >> c;
try
{
switch (c)
{
case A. throw 20;
case B. throw 5.2f;
case C. throw obj;
default: cout<<“No exception”;
}
}
catch (int e)
{ cout << “int exception. Exception Nr. ” << e; }
catch (A e)
{ cout << “object exception. Exception Nr. ” << e.i; }
catch (…)
{ cout << “An exception occurred.”; }
return 0;
}
A. It prints: object exception. Exception Nr. 5
B. It prints: int exception. Exception Nr.
C. It prints: An exception occurred
D. It prints: No exception
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 91
Point out an error in the program.
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
char s1[] = “Hello”;
char s2[] = “world”;
char *const ptr = s1;
*ptr = ‘a’;
ptr = s2;
return 0;
}
A. No error
B. Cannot modify a const object
C. Compilation error at line 9
D. None of these
70-773 exam Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 92
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int x=20;
int *ptr;
ptr = &x;
cout<<*ptr;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 20
B. It prints: 0
C. It prints address of ptr
D. It prints: 2
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 93
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int x=0;
int *ptr;
ptr = &x;
cout<<x<<” “<<*ptr;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 0 0
B. It prints address of ptr
C. It prints: 1
D. It prints: 2
70-773 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 94
Given:
#include <iostream>
#include <exception>
using namespace std;
int main () {
try
{
int * myarray= new int[1000];
}
catch (bad_alloc&)
{
cout << “Error allocating memory”;
}
catch (exception& e)
{
cout << “Standard exception”;
}
catch (…)
{
cout << “Unknown exception”;
}
return 0;
}
What will happen if we use the operator “new” and the memory cannot be allocated?
A. It prints: Error allocating memory
B. It prints: Standard exception
C. It prints: Unknown exception
D. Compilation error
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 95
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
struct {
int x;
char c;
union {
float f;
int i;
};
} s;
int main (int argc, const char * argv[])
{
s.x=10;
s.i=0;
cout << s.i << ” ” << s.x;
}
A. It prints: 0 10
B. It prints: 11
C. Compilation error
D. None of these
70-773 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 96
What is the output of the program?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int main () {
string s1 = “Hello”, s2 = “World”;
s2 = s1 + s2;
cout << s2;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: Hello
B. It prints: HelloWorld
C. It prints: WorldHello
D. It prints: WorldHelloWorld
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 97
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int *t;
t = new int[2];
for (int i=0; i<2; i++) {
t[i]=0;
}
cout << t[1];
}
A. It prints: 0
B. It prints: 1
C. It prints: 2
D. It prints: 3
70-773 vce Answer: A

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