New AZ-800 Dumps And Practice Questions Get You Through Quickly

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions.

What is the method of the AZ-800 exam, how you prepare strongly determines how quickly you succeed in the Microsoft AZ-800 exam. It is recommended that you use here new AZ-800 dumps practice questions.

Download new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 153+ https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-800.html (pdf+vce) to get you quickly past the Administering Windows Server Hybrid Core Infrastructure exam.

The AZ-800 exam will be updated on January 29, 2024

This message all the more means that you need new AZ-800 dumps practice questions to prepare for the exam, remember, it must be new, outdated AZ-800 exam questions are useless.

Back to the topic, here is the focus on the new changes in the exam:

new changes in the AZ-800 exam 01
new changes in the AZ-800 exam 02

New AZ-800 exam new materials to share:

It is divided into document mode

  • Study guide for Exam AZ-801: Configuring Windows Server Hybrid Advanced Services
  • Exam AZ-800: Administering Windows Server Hybrid Core Infrastructure – Certifications
  • Exam AZ-801: Configuring Windows Server Hybrid Advanced Services – Certifications
  • Microsoft Certified: Windows Server Hybrid Administrator Associate – Certifications

It is divided into video modes

  1. https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-800-deploy-and-manage-active-directory-domain-services-as-ds-in-on-premises-and-cloud-environments-segment-1-of-5
  2. https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-800-manage-windows-servers-and-workloads-in-a-hybrid-environment-segment-2-of-5
  3. https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-800-manage-virtual-machines-and-containers-segment-3-of-5
  4. https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-800-implement-and-manage-an-on-premises-and-hybrid-networking-infrastructure-segment-4-of-5
  5. https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-800-manage-storage-and-file-services-segment-5-of-5

It is divided into book mode

All three are common modes and you can choose your preferred one to take the AZ-800 exam.

Share new AZ-800 dumps some free AZ-800 practice questions

Come from: Pass4itSure
Number of Questions: 15/153
Relevant certification: Microsoft

Question 1:

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest. The forest contains three Active Directory sites named Site1, Site2, and Site3. Each site contains two domain controllers. The sites are connected by using

DEFAULTIPSITELINK.

You open a new branch office that contains only client computers.

You need to ensure that the client computers in the new office are primarily authenticated by the domain controllers in Site1.

Solution: You create a new site named Site4 and associate Site4 to DEFAULTSITELINK.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

You deploy a single-domain Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest named contoso.com.

You deploy a server to the domain and configure the server to run a service.

You need to ensure that the service can use a group-managed service account (gMSA) to authenticate.

Which three PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 2

Correct Answer:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 2-2

Question 3:

You need to meet the technical requirements for Server1. Which users can currently perform the required tasks?

A. Admin1 only.

B. Admin3 only.

C. Admin1 and Admin3 only.

D. Admin1, Admin2 and Admin3.

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

You need to use the principle of least privilege.

Choose a solution to meet the technical requirements of User1.

A. Create a delegation on contoso.com.

B. Create a delegation on OU3.

C. Add Users1 to the Server Operators group in contoso.com.

D. Add Users1 to the Account Operators group on contoso.com.

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

You need to meet the technical requirements for User1. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. What should you do?

A. Add Users1 to the Server Operators group in contoso.com.

B. Create a delegation on contoso.com.

C. Add Users1 to the Account Operators group on contoso.com.

D. Create a delegation on OU3.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/ad-ds/plan/delegating-administration-of-account-ous-and-resource-ous

Question 6:

HOTSPOT

You have a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server and contains the volumes shown in the following table.

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 6

On which volumes can you use BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) and disk quotas? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 6-2

Correct Answer:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 6-3

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/storage/refs/refs-overview

Question 7:

You have servers that have the DNS Server role installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 7

All the client computers in the New York office use Server2 as the DNS server.

You need to configure name resolution in the New York office to meet the following requirements:

1. Ensure that the client computers in New York can resolve names from contoso.com.

2. Ensure that Server2 forwards all DNS queries for internet hosts to 131. 107.100.200.

The solution must NOT require modifications to Server1.

Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a forwarder

B. a conditional forwarder

C. a delegation

D. a secondary zone

E. a reverse lookup zone

Correct Answer: AB

A conditional forwarder is required for contoso.com.

A forwarder is required for all other domains.

When you have a conditional forwarder and a forwarder configured, the conditional forwarder will be used for the specified domain.

You could use a secondary zone for contoso.com but that would require a configuration change on Server1.

Question 8:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure subscription named sub1 and 500 on-premises virtual machines that run Windows Server.

You plan to onboard the on-premises virtual machines to Azure Arc by running the Azure Arc deployment script.

You need to create an identity that will be used by the script to authenticate access to sub1. The solution must use the principle of least privilege.

How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 8

Correct Answer:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 8-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-arc/servers/onboard-service-principal

Question 9:

You need to configure remote administration to meet the security requirements. What should you use?

A. an Azure Bastion host

B. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)

C. the Remote Desktop extension for Azure Cloud Services

D. just in time (JIT) VM Access

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/defender-for-cloud/just-in-time-access-usage?tabs=jit-config-asc%2Cjit-request-asc

Question 10:

DRAG DROP

You have a server named Server1 that has Windows Admin Center installed. The certificate used by Windows Admin Center was obtained from a certification authority (CA).

The certificate expires.

You need to replace the certificate.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 10

Correct Answer:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 10-2

Reference: https://www.starwindsoftware.com/blog/change-the-windows-admin-center-certificate

Question 11:

You are planning the implementation of Azure Arc to support the planned changes.

You need to configure the environment to support configuration management policies.

What should you do?

A. Hybrid Azure AD joins all the servers.

B. Create a hybrid runbook worker for Azure Automation.

C. Deploy the Azure Connected Machine agent to all the servers.

D. Deploy the Azure Monitor agent to all the servers.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-arc/servers/plan-at-scale-deployment

Question 12:

DRAG DROP

You have an Azure subscription. The subscription contains a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server. VM1 contains a 128-GB operating system disk.

You need to increase the size of volume C on VM1 to 250 GB.

Which four actions should you perform in sequence?

To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 12

Correct Answer:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 12-2

How to expand virtual hard disks attached to a Windows virtual machine

You may need to expand the OS disk if you\’re supporting a legacy application that installs components on the OS disk or if you\’re migrating a physical PC or VM from on-premises that has a larger OS disk.

Step 1: Stop VM1.

Resize a managed disk by using PowerShell

1. Stop the VM before resizing the disk:

Stop-AzVM -ResourceGroupName $rgName -Name $vmName

Step 2: Resize the operating system disk.

2. Obtain a reference to the managed OS disk. Set the size of the managed OS disk to the desired value and update the Disk:

$disk= Get-AzDisk -ResourceGroupName $rgName -DiskName $diskName $disk.DiskSizeGB = 1023 Update-AzDisk -ResourceGroupName $rgName -Disk $disk -DiskName $disk.Name

Step 3: Start VM1.

3. Updating the VM might take a few seconds. When the command finishes executing, restart the VM:

Start-AzVM -ResourceGroupName $rgName -Name $vmName

Step 4: Resize Volume C.

Expand the volume in the operating system

When you\’ve expanded the disk for the VM, you need to go into the OS and expand the volume to encompass the new space.

Reference: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/expand-os-disk

Question 13:

DRAG DROP

Your network contains a single domain Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory site.

You plan to deploy a read-only domain controller (RODC) to a new data center on a server named Server1. A user named User1 is a member of the local Administrators group on Server1.

You need to recommend a deployment plan that meets the following requirements:

1. Ensures that a user named User1 can perform the RODC installation on Server1

2. Ensures that Server1 is in a new site named RemoteSite1

3. Uses the principle of least privilege

Which three actions should you recommend performing in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 13

Correct Answer:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 13-2

Step 1: Pre-create an RODC account.

You can deploy RODC using the Staged feature. It consists of pre-creating the RODC computer account in the ADUC console and basic setup.

Step 2: Create a site and a subnet

Step 3: Instruct User1 to run the Active Directory Domain Services installation Wizard on Server1.

The Domain Controller Options page also enables you to choose the appropriate Active Directory logical site name from the forest configuration. By default, it selects the site with the most correct subnet. If there is only one site, it selects that site automatically.

Important:

If the server does not belong to an Active Directory subnet and there is more than one Active Directory site, nothing is selected and the Next button is unavailable until you choose a site from the list.

Incorrect:

* Add User1 to the Contoso\Administrators group.

This is against the principle of least privilege.

Reference:

https://woshub.com/deploying-read-domain-controller-windows-server-2016/

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/ad-ds/deploy/rodc/install-a-windows-server-2012-active-directory-read-only-domain-controller–rodc—level-200

Question 14:

You need to configure the Group Policy settings to ensure that the Azure Virtual Desktop session hosts meet the security requirements. What should you configure?

A. loopback processing in GPO4

B. security filtering for the link of GPO1

C. loopback processing in GPO1

D. The enforced property for the link of GPO4

E. the Enforced property for the link of GPO1

F. security filtering for the link of GPO4

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

SIMULATION You need to collect errors from the System event log of SRV1 to a Log Analytics workspace.

The required source files are located in a folder named \\dc1.contoso.com\install.

To complete this task, sign in the required computer or computers.

A. See the explanation below.

B. PlaceHolder

C. PlaceHolder

D. PlaceHolder

Correct Answer: A

Configure Windows event logs

Configure Windows event logs from the Agents configuration menu for the Log Analytics workspace.

Step 1: Go to the Log Analytics workspaces menu in the Azure portal.

Configure data sources

To configure data sources for Log Analytics agents, go to the Log Analytics workspaces menu in the Azure portal and select a workspace.

Step 2: Select Agents configuration.

Step 3: Select the tab for the data source you want to configure.

In this case the Windows event log of SRV1.

Step 4: Select only the Error option in the System Log row.

Azure Monitor only collects events from Windows event logs that are specified in the settings.

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 15

Reference: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/agents/data-sources-windows-events https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/agents/agent-data-sources#configure-data-sources

More Microsoft Exam Questions…

Answers to your most important AZ-800 questions

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Pass the AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate (SAA-C03) exam in three weeks

relax exam
  1. Introduce the exam first:
  2. CLF vs. SSA
  3. Exam preparation process
    • 3.1 Udemy online courses
      • 3.1.1《Ultimate AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate SAA-C03》 by Stéphane Maarek
      • 3.1.2 《Practice Exams | AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate》by Stéphane Maarek and Abhishek Singh
      • 3.1.3 《Practice Exams | AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate》 by Jobshie Academy
    • 3.2 Question bank
      • 3.2.2 Pass4itsure

1. SAA Exam Introduction

Solutions Architect – Associate (SAA-C03) is the basic level exam of Amazon Cloud. There is no threshold for taking the exam and it is suitable for any group of people, but the difficulty will be slightly higher than Cloud Practitioner (CLF-C01).

The registration fee is $150 in North America, and now you can get the PROMO CODE: AWSRETAKE on the official website (Amazon Web Services:: Pearson VUE). After using this CODE, if you fail the exam before May 31, 2023, you can retake the exam for free. This CODE can be used in multiple exam registrations, but only one CODE can be used for one exam.

The exam consists of 65 multiple-choice questions, 15 of which are not scored. The total score of the test is 1000 points, and 720 points are regarded as a pass.

After the test, the result will not be released on the spot. You will know whether you passed and the specific score within a day, and you will receive a badge that can be placed on LinkedIn within a week.

You can choose to take the test at an offline test center or at home. There are multiple language options, and you can choose the language you are familiar with. English is recommended.

The test time is 140 minutes, and candidates who are not native speakers of English can apply for an additional 30 minutes, for a total of 170 minutes.

When using study materials, be careful to avoid SAA-C02 materials.

2. CLF vs. SAA

Compared with CLF, SAA examines more extensive and detailed knowledge points, and the length of questions and options is significantly longer. I can get a result in 2 to 10 seconds for a question in CLF, but I have to read it carefully for one minute in SAA, so there is a big difference in the speed of answering questions. I handed in the CLF exam in 15 minutes, and it took me almost an hour to hand in the SAA exam.

CLF will only examine the basic concepts and basic application scenarios of various AWS services, but SAA will combine multiple services and multiple scenarios, and require candidates to choose the most reasonable architecture under different requirements. Both exams are purely conceptual multiple-choice exams and do not involve writing code.

I personally suggest that if you don’t have AWS, you can take the CLF test first to find experience, because it can detect whether the candidates really want to take the certificate (generally speaking, the fourth highest probability of CLF serious preparation is no problem, and students with basic skills can pass the test in two days), Moreover, after passing the CLF, a 50% coupon will be given, and the next time the examination can be half price. In the United States, the CLF test fee is $100, and the SSA test fee is $150. The two exams together are equivalent to 100 + 150 * 50% = 175 US dollars. It only costs 25 US dollars to get a certificate, which is quite a deal.

3. Exam preparation process

3.1 Udemy Online Courses

3.1.1《Ultimate AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate SAA-C03》 by Stéphane Maarek

I didn’t watch the online class for CLF, and just memorized the summary of other people’s knowledge points and passed the test. I searched for SAA and found no suitable summary, so I had to watch the online class by myself. I mainly follow this online class. Teacher Xiao Huang is not Indian, and his English accent is fairly standard. The knowledge points covered in this course are very comprehensive, but I haven’t finished it, and I probably watched 80% of the theoretical courses. For the purpose of taking the exam, I basically skip the lab class.

What is very interesting about this course is that it was $19.99 when I clicked to buy it for the first time, $24.99 the second time, and $29.99 the third time. At this time, I changed a Udemy account on a whim. I found that the price of the course has changed to $18.99, so I placed an order at the speed of light and gave it to my Udemy account.

PS: If you have bought courses on Udemy in recent years, then you can participate in this settlement to receive compensation, $4 per course Marion Williams v. Udemy, Inc. – Superior Court of California, County of San Diego – Case No. 37-2023-00003666-CU-BT-NC

3.1.2 《Practice Exams | AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate》by Stéphane Maarek and Abhishek Singh

Teacher Xiao Huang’s supporting model test questions are extremely difficult, and the questions are not very similar to the real ones. Some of the test points covered have not even been covered in his own class. I hovered between 50% and 60% in the first two sets of the exam, which was a blow to my confidence. However, although the quality of the questions in this set of mock exams is average, the analysis and writing are very detailed and have great reference value.

I don’t recommend this set of questions, or you can do two sets of questions after buying it to experience it. If you feel bad, you can return it within the 30-day refund window.

3.1.3 《Practice Exams | AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate》 by Jobshie Academy

The quality of the free model test questions that Udemy received when it was limited to free can only be described in four words: a pile of shit.

3.2 Question bank

3.2.1 Pass4itsure

If you want to get the certificate quickly, brushing the questions is essential. And I think Pass4itsure is the eternal god in various question banks. There may be 65%+ questions in my exams, all of which are original questions. From the question stem to the options, and even the order of the options are exactly the same. Therefore, readers are advised to practice carefully.

At present, there are 610 questions on Pass4itsure, some demos are given away, and the updated content of each time period is shared.

I do not recommend SAA memorization because:

  1. The knowledge learned is your own, and mere endorsement is painful
  2. The topic is too long, and the differences between the options are also very subtle. It is still necessary to study theoretical knowledge and understand it carefully.
  3. In case of bad luck on the day of the exam, why not just play around with few original questions?

I am advancing in parallel with the online class and brushing the questions, because the online class is too long, and I have to do the questions in one or two sections to relax. It’s not normal to do anything at the beginning, don’t put too much pressure on yourself, just record (and review) the newly learned knowledge points from the comment area.

PS. Share the free SAA-C03 practice questions I got

Pass4itsure 200-301 Dumps Update [2023] | The Best Online Resource

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There are so many ways to learn 200-301.

On the Internet – You can start online. You just put your query and get the best solution.

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Forum: – You should use experts in solutions obtained on the forum website.

Books:- You can purchase books online and start learning.

However, it is recommended that you practice with our Pass4itSure 200-301 dumps to prepare for the exam.

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The 200-301 exam is part of the Cisco CCNA certification and covers networking fundamentals, IP protocols, routing, and switching. , the exam is difficult, and it is necessary to fully understand various concepts and techniques and master their application.

To overcome this difficulty, you need the latest 200-301 exam questions, don’t worry, we share them with you (Pass4itSure) provided.

Pass4itsure 2023 Newest Cisco 200-301 CCNA Exam Questions Answers

Q1:

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 ccna exam questions and answers q1

access-list 10 permit 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.255

ip nat inside source list 10 pool CCNA overload

Which command set configures ROUTER-1 to allow Internet access for users on the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet while using 209.165.202.129 for Port Address Translation?

A. ip nat pool CCNA 192.168.0.0 192.168.1.255 netmask 255.255.255.0

B. ip nat pool CCNA 209.165.202.129 209.165.202.129 netmask 255.255.255.255

access-list 10 permit 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0

ip nat inside source list 10 pool CCNA overload

C. ip nat pool CCNA 192.168.0.0 192.168.1.255 netmask 255.255.255.0

access-list 10 permit 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0

ip nat inside source list 10 pool CCNA overload

D. ip nat pool CCNA 209.165.202.129 209.165.202.129 netmask 255.255.255.255 access-list 10 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 ip nat inside source list 10 pool CCNA overload

Correct Answer: A


Q2:

Refer to the exhibit. Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

200-301 ccna exam questions and answers q2

A. Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B. An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C. physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D. The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

Correct Answer: C


Q3:

A multivendor network exists and the company is implementing VoIP over the network for the first time.

200-301 ccna exam questions and answers q3

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B


Q4:

Which two statements are factual about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)

A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network.

B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network.

C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network.

D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4.

E. It uses the default administrative distance.

F. It is a route that would be used last if other ways to the same destination exist.

Correct Answer: AE


Q5:

What is a feature of WPA?

A. 802.1x authentication

B. preshared key

C. TKIP/MIC encryption

D. small Wi-Fi application

Correct Answer: A


Q6:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Select and Place:

200-301 ccna exam questions and answers q6

Correct Answer:

200-301 ccna exam questions and answers q6-2

Double-Tagging attack:

200-301 ccna exam questions and answers q6-3

In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).

When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10 and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed.

Switch A forwards the frame out of all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch Receives the frame with a tag of VLAN 20 so it removes this tag and forwards it out to the Victim’s computer.

Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN as the attacker.

To mitigate this type of attack, you can use VLAN access control lists (VACLs, which apply to all traffic within a VLAN. We can use VACL to drop attacker traffic to specific victims/servers) or implement Private VLANs.

ARP attack (like ARP poisoning/spoofing) is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network as ARP allows a gratuitous reply from a host even if an ARP request was not received.

This results in linking an attacker\’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. This is an attack based on ARP which is at Layer 2. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network which can be used to mitigate this type of attack.


Q7:

Which switch concept is used to create separate broadcast domains?

A. STP

B. VTP

C. VLAN

D. CSMA/CD

Correct Answer: C


Q8:

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

200-301 ccna exam questions and answers q8

A. Switch2(config)#lldp timer 60 Switch2(config)#lldp holdtime 180

B. Switch2(config)#lldp timer 60 Switch2(config)#lldp tlv-select 180

C. Switch2(config)#lldp timer 1 Switch2(config)#lldp holdtime 3

D. Switch2(config)#lldp timer 1 Switch2(config)#lldp tlv-select 3

Correct Answer: A


Q9:

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

A. spanning-tree vlan 200 priority 614440

B. spanning-tree vlan 200 priority 38572422

C. spanning-tree vlan 200 priority 0

D. spanning-tree vlan 200 root primary

Correct Answer: C


Q10:

A network engineer implements a new Cisco Firepower device on the network to exploit its intrusion detection functionality. There is a requirement to analyze the traffic going across the device, alert on any malicious traffic, and appear as a bump in the wire. How should this be implemented?

A. Specify the BVI IP address as the default gateway for connected devices

B. Enable routing on the Cisco Firepower

C. Add an IP address to the physical Cisco Firepower interfaces

D. Configure a bridge group in transparent mode

Correct Answer: D


Q11:

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 ccna exam questions and answers q11

Which prefix does CertBus-R use to Host A?

A. 10.10.10.0/28

B. 10.10.13.0/25

C. 10.10.13.144/28

D. 10.10.13.208/29

Correct Answer: D

Host A address fall within the address range. However, if more than one route to the same subnet exists (the router will use the longest stick match, which matches a more specific route to the subnet). If there are routes 10.10.13.192/26 and 10.10.13.208/29, the router will forward the packet to /29 rather than /28.


Q12:

Which WLC interface provides out-of-band management in the Cisco Unified Wireless Network Architecture?

A. AP-Manager

B. service port

C. dynamic

D. virtual

Correct Answer: B


Q13:

Which statement about LLDP is true?

A. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

B. It is configured in global configuration mode.

C. The LLDP update frequency is a fixed value.

D. It runs over the transport layer.

Correct Answer: B


Q14:

A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded, which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?

A. switch port port-security violation access

B. switch port port-security violation protect

C. switch port port-security violation restrict

D. switch port port-security violation shutdown

Correct Answer: D


Q15:

Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with the WPA2 standard?

A. AES256

B. AES

C. RC4

D. SHA

Correct Answer: B


For more exam questions, you’ll need to download the Pass4itSure 200-301 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-301.html

Share Some Important Tips For Cracking The Microsoft SC-400 Exam

latest SC-400 dumps free

This article not only shares some passing advice for the Microsoft SC-400 exam but also brings you practical solutions. To pass the SC-400 exam, you can improve your chances of passing the exam by downloading the Pass4itSure SC-400 dumps and taking a practice exam.

The latest SC-400 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/sc-400.html consists of 154 brand-new practice questions, presented in PDF and VCE mode, the best learning materials you deserve.

The SC-400 exam is Microsoft’s security certification exam that covers Azure security, authentication and access management, platform protection, data and application protection, and more.

Here are some suggestions for passing the SC-400 exam:

  • Familiarize yourself with the exam content: Before the exam, be sure to fully understand the content and format of the SC-400 exam.

You can check the exam guide and syllabus on Microsoft’s website to help you better prepare.

  • Learning-related knowledge areas: Learn about Microsoft security products and services related to the exam, such as Azure AD, Azure Sentinel, Azure Security Center, etc.

Make sure you have some understanding and proficiency in Azure infrastructure, network security, authentication, access control, data protection, application security, and more.

  • Brush questions and practice tests: Doing some practice tests and practice questions before the exam can help you better understand the difficulty and test points of the test, and improve your speed and accuracy in answering questions.
  • Resources can be found on Microsoft’s official training website or on other online education platforms. Also available below, the latest free exam questions from the Pass4itSure SC-400 dumps are available.
  • Stay calm: It is very important to stay calm and focused during the exam.

If you encounter a question you’re not sure about, skip it and answer the others, and finally take time to think carefully. At the same time, pay attention to time management.

The rest of the time, study.

Prepare fresh SC-400 exam materials for you

SC-400 dumps free online practice questions

Question 1:

Each product group at your company must show a distinct product logo in encrypted emails instead of the standard Microsoft Office 365 logo. What should you do to create the branding templates?

A. Create a Transport rule.

B. Create an RMS template.

C. Run the Set-IRMConfiguration cmdlet.

D. Run the New-OMEConfiguration cmdlet.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/add-your-organization-brand-to-encrypted-messages?view=o365-worldwide


Question 2:

Your company manufactures parts that are each assigned a unique 12-character alphanumeric serial number. Emails between the company and its customers reference the serial number.

You need to ensure that only Microsoft Exchange Online emails containing the serial numbers are retained for five years.

Which three objects should you create? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a sensitivity label

B. a retention policy

C. an auto-labeling policy

D. a trainable classifier

E. a sensitive info type

F. a retention label

G. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy

Correct Answer: CEF

C: One of the most powerful features of retention labels is the ability to apply them automatically to content that matches specified conditions.

F: You can apply retention labels to content automatically when that content contains: Specific types of sensitive information Specific keywords or searchable properties that match a query you create A match for trainable classifiers

E: Sensitive information types are pattern-based classifiers. They detect sensitive information like social security, credit card, or bank account numbers to identify sensitive items. Custom-sensitive information types use regular expressions, keywords, and keyword dictionaries.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/sensitive-information-type-learn-about?view=o365-worldwide

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/apply-sensitivity-label-automatically?view=o365-worldwide

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/retention?view=o365-worldwide


Question 3:

HOTSPOT

You have the files shown in the following table.

SC-400 online questions 3

You configure a retention policy as shown in the exhibit.

SC-400 online questions 3-2

The start of the retention period is based on when items are created. The current date is January 01, 2021.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 3-3

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 3-4

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/retention-policies-sharepoint?view=o365-worldwide


Question 4:

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses trainable classifiers.

You are creating a custom trainable classifier.

You collect 300 sample file types from various geographical locations to use as seed content. Some of the file samples are encrypted.

You organize the files into categories as shown in the following table.

SC-400 online questions 4

Which file categories can be used as seed content?

A. Category2, Category3, and Category5 only

B. Category1 and Category3 only

C. Category4 and Category6 only

D. Category4 and Category5 only

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/classifier-get-started-with?view=o365- worldwide

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/technical-reference/default-crawled-file-name-extensions-and-parsed-file-types


Question 5:

You implement Microsoft 365 Endpoint data loss prevention (Endpoint DLP).

You have computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft 365 Apps installed. The computers are joined to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).

You need to ensure that Endpoint DLP policies can protect content on the computers.

Solution: You onboard the computers to Microsoft Defender fur Endpoint.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

HOTSPOT

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses a domain named contoso.com.

A user named User1 leaves your company. The mailbox of User1 is placed on Litigation Hold, and then the account of User1 is deleted from Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).

You need to copy the content of the User1 mailbox to a folder in the existing mailbox of another user named User2.

How should you complete the PowerShell command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 6

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 6-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/restore-an-inactive-mailbox?view=o365-worldwide


Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You create a retention policy as shown in the following exhibit.

SC-400 online questions 7

A user named User1 deletes a file named File1.docx from a Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Site1.

A user named User2 deletes an email and empties the Deleted Items folder in Microsoft Outlook.

Where is the content retained one year after deletion? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 7-2

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 7-3

Question 8:

HOTSPOT You create a retention label policy named Contoso_Policy that contains the following labels:

1. 10 years then delete

2. 5 years then delete

3. Do not retain

Contoso_Policy is applied to content in Microsoft SharePoint Online sites.

After a couple of days, you discover the following messages on the Properties page of the label policy:

1. Status: Off (Error)

2. It\’s taking longer than expected to deploy the policy

You need to reinitiate the policy.

How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 8

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 8-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/set-retentioncompliancepolicy?view=exchange-ps


Question 9:

HOTSPOT

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains the devices shown in the following table.

SC-400 online questions 9

You need to onboard the devices to Microsoft Purview. The solution must ensure that you can apply Endpoint data loss prevention (Endpoint DLP) policies to the devices. What can you use to onboard each device? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 9-2

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 9-2

Question 10:

HOTSPOT

How many files in Site2 will be visible to User1 and User2 after you turn on DLPpolicy1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 10

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 10-2

Reference: https://social.technet.microsoft.com/wiki/contents/articles/36527.implement-data-loss-prevention-dlp-in-sharepoint-online.aspx


Question 11:

HOTSPOT

You are implementing Microsoft Office 365 Message Encryption (OME) for a Microsoft 365 tenant named contoso.com.

You need to meet the following requirements:

1. All emails to a domain named fabrikam.com must be encrypted automatically.

2. Encrypted emails must expire seven days after they are sent.

What should you configure for each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 11

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 11-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/email-encryption?view=o365-worldwide

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/ome-advanced-expiration?view=o365-worldwide


Question 12:

DRAG DROP

You need to meet the technical requirements for the Site1 documents.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

SC-400 online questions 12

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 12-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/apply-sensitivity-label-automatically?view=o365-worldwide#how-to-configure-auto-labeling-policies-for-sharepoint-onedrive-and-exchange


Question 13:

You are configuring a retention label named Label1 as shown in the following exhibit.

SC-400 online questions 13

You need to ensure that documents that have Label1 applied are deleted three years after the end of your company\’s fiscal year. What should you do?

A. Create a new event type.

B. Select Only delete items when they reach a certain age.

C. Modify the Retention period setting.

D. Set At the end of the retention period to Trigger a disposition review.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/event-driven-retention?view=o365-worldwide


Question 14:

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You are configuring a file policy in Microsoft Cloud App Security.

You need to configure the policy to apply to all files. Alerts must be sent to every file owner who is affected by the policy. The policy must scan for credit card numbers, and alerts must be sent to the Microsoft Teams site of the affected department.

Solution: You use the Built-in DLP inspection method and send alerts to Microsoft Power Automate.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cloud-app-security/content-inspection-built-in https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cloud-app-security/flow-integration


Question 15:

You need to be alerted when users share sensitive documents from Microsoft One Drive with any users outside your company. What should you do?

A. From the Exchange admin center, create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.

B. From the Azure portal, create an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Identity Protection policy.

C. From the Microsoft 365 compliance center, create an insider risk policy.

D. From the Cloud App Security portal, create a file policy.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/dlp-learn-about-dlp?view=o365-worldwide


SC-400 questions pdf free download:

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These are just some of the questions, and you need to go to Pass4itSure for the whole thing.

Conclusion:

To do the above exam recommendations, in conjunction with the latest SC-400 dumps, the full SC-400 question https://www.pass4itsure.com/sc-400.html is available for online download

With these, successfully passing the Microsoft Information Protection Administrator exam is easy.

PL-300 Dumps Update | Please Take A Moment To Practice

latest PL-300 dumps

The first step in passing the Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst exam is to prepare the latest PL-300 dumps for exam preparation. But this step alone is not enough, please take a moment to practice the PL-300 exam questions!

Pass4itSure updated PL-300 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/pl-300.html and PL-300 exam questions to help you prepare for the exam, so take the time to practice and earn your Microsoft Certified: Data Analyst Associate.

In this post, we will share PL-300 free dumps Q&A!

Why are PL-300 dumps important for preparation?

Yes, dumps are very important to crack the Microsoft PL-300 exam. If you don’t practice PL-300 dumps, you may end up failing.

But a word of caution: do not rely on outdated PL-300 dumps with incorrect answers, which could mislead our preparations.

Pass4itSure PL-300 dumps are recommended here. Pass4itSure is more compatible with the exam, and the questions are all set around the real test content, which is real and valid.

It costs $45.99, but trust me it’s worth every penny. There are 291 questions. Each question comes with a detailed explanation that will help us understand the Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst topic.

Passing the PL-300 exam cannot be neglected to take a moment to practice

Practice is the number one priority! Practice questions are necessary not only to promote understanding of the content of the exam but also to familiarize yourself with the exam. Be sure to take the time to practice the PL-300 exam questions!

Get Microsoft Exam PL-300 Dumps Questions 2023 (Free)

Question 1:

HOTSPOT

You have a dataset named Pens that contains the following columns:

1. Unit Price

2. Quantity Ordered

You need to create a visualization that shows the relationship between Unit Price and Quantity Ordered. The solution must highlight orders that have a similar unit price and ordered quantity.

Which type of visualization and which feature should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

pl-300 exam questions 1

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 1-2

Box 1: A scatter plot…

A scatter chart always has two value axes to show: one set of numerical data along a horizontal axis and another set of numerical values along a vertical axis. The chart displays points at the intersection of an x and y numerical value, combining these values into single data points.

Power BI may distribute these data points evenly or unevenly across the horizontal axis. It depends on the data the chart represents.

Box 2: Automatically find clusters

Scatter charts are a great choice to show patterns in large sets of data, for example by showing linear or non-linear trends, clusters, and outliers.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-scatter


Question 2:

You have an app workspace that contains a dashboard and four reports. All the reports are generated from a single dataset that contains sales data for your company. The reports display the data configured as shown in the following table.

pl-300 exam questions 2

You need to ensure that the users of the reports can locate the correct report by using natural language queries. What should you do?

A. From the properties of the dataset, create four Featured QandA Questions.

B. From the Format settings of the reports, modify the Page Information.

C. From the properties of the dataset, modify the QandA and Cortana settings.

D. From the properties of the workspace, modify the Language Settings.

Correct Answer: C

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-q-and-a-direct-query#limitations-during-public-preview


Question 3:

HOTSPOT

You have a column named UnitsInStock as shown in the following exhibit.

pl-300 exam questions 3

UnitsInStock has 75 non-null values, of which 51 are unique.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

pl-300 exam questions 3-2

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 3-3

Box 1: 75

Box 2: reduce

They reduce from the number of values (75), to the number of unique values (51).

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/create-reports/desktop-show-items-no-data


Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You have two Azure SQL databases that contain the same tables and columns. For each database, you create a query that retrieves data from a table named Customer.

You need to determine the Customer tables into a single table. The solution must minimize the size of the data model and support scheduled refresh in powerbi.com. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

pl-300 exam questions 4

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 4-2

Box 1: Append Queries as New.

There are two primary ways of combining queries: merging and appending.

1. When you have one or more columns that you’d like to add to another query, you merge the queries.

2. When you have additional rows of data that you’d like to add to an existing query, you append the query.

Box 2: Disable loading the query to the data model

For every query that loads into the model memory will be consumed. and Memory is our asset in the Model, less memory consumption leads to better performance in most cases. The best approach is to disable loading.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-query/append-queries


Question 5:

HOTSPOT

You have two tables named Customers and Invoice in a Power BI model. The Customers table contains the following fields:

1. CustomerID

2. Customer City

3. Customer State

4. Customer Name

5. Customer Address 1

6. Customer Address 2

7. Customer Postal Code

The Invoice table contains the following fields:

1. Order ID

2. Invoice ID

3. Invoice Date

4. Customer ID

5. Total Amount

6. Total Item Count

The Customers table is related to the Invoice table through the Customer ID columns. A customer can have many invoices within one month.

The Power BI model must provide the following information:

The number of customers invoiced in each state last month

The average invoice amount per customer in each postal code

You need to define the relationship from the Customers table to the Invoice table. The solution must optimize query performance. What should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

pl-300 exam questions 5

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 5-2

Box 1: One-to-many

A customer can have many invoices within one month.

Box 2: Single

For One-to-many relationships, the cross-filter direction is always from the “one” side, and optionally from the “many” side (bi-directional).

Single cross-filter direction means “single direction”, and Both means “both directions”. A relationship that filters in both directions is commonly described as bi-directional.


Question 6:

You have a QandA visual that displays information from a table named Carriers as shown in the following exhibit.

pl-300 exam questions 6

You need to ensure that users can ask questions by using the term airline or carrier. The solution must minimize changes to the data model. What should you do?

A. Add a duplicate query named Airline.

B. Add airline as a synonym of the carrier.

C. Rename the carrier column as an airline in the Carriers query.

D. Rename the query from Carriers to airlines.

Correct Answer: B

Add synonyms to tables and columns: This step applies specifically to QandA (and not to Power BI reports in general). Users often have a variety of terms they use to refer to the same thing, such as total sales, net sales, and total net sales. You can add these synonyms to tables and columns in the Power BI model.

This step can be important. Even with straightforward table and column names, users of QandA ask questions using the vocabulary that first comes to them. They\’re not choosing from a predefined list of columns. The more sensible synonyms you add, the better your users\’ experience is with your report.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/natural-language/q-and-a-best-practices


Question 7:

DRAG DROP

You build a report about warehouse inventory data. The dataset has more than 10 million product records from 200 warehouses worldwide.

You have a table named Products that contains the columns shown in the following table.

pl-300 exam questions 7

Warehouse managers report that it is difficult to use the report because the report uses only the product name in tables and visuals. The product name is contained within the ProductDescription column and is always the fourth value.

You need to modify the report to support the warehouse manager’s requirement to explore inventory levels at different levels of the product hierarchy. The solution must minimize the model size.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

pl-300 exam questions 7-2

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 7-3

Power BI Desktop supports the use of inline hierarchy labels. With inline hierarchy labels, you can see hierarchy labels as you expand visuals using the Expand All feature.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/create-reports/desktop-inline-hierarchy-labels


Question 8:

You need to create a Power Bl theme that will be used in multiple reports. The theme will include corporate branding for font size, color, and bar chart formatting.

What should you do?

A. Create a theme as a PBIVIZ file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

B. Create a theme as a JSON file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

C. From Power Bl Desktop, use a built-in report theme.

D. From Power Bl Desktop, customize the current theme.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

You have a data model that contains many complex DAX expressions. The expressions contain frequent references to the RELATED and RELATED TABLE functions.

You need to recommend a solution to minimize the use of the RELATED and RELATED TABLE functions.

What should you recommend?

A. Merge tables by using Power Query.

B. Hide unused columns in the model.

C. Split the model into multiple models.

D. Transpose.

Correct Answer: A

Combining data means connecting to two or more data sources, shaping them as needed, then consolidating them into a user query. When you have one or more columns that you\’d like to add to another query, you merge the queries.

Note: The RELATEDTABLE function is a shortcut for the CALCULATETABLE function with no logical expression. CALCULATETABLE evaluates a table expression in a modified filter context and returns A table of values.


Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/desktop-shape-and-combine-data

Question 10:

DRAG DROP

You have a Microsoft Excel workbook that contains two sheets named Sheet1 and Sheet2. Sheet 1 contains the following table named Table 1.

pl-300 exam questions 10

Sheet 2 contains the following table named Table 2.

Select and Place:

pl-300 exam questions 10-2

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 10-3
Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Once the profit and loss dataset is created, which four actions should you perform in sequence to ensure that the business unit analysts see the appropriate profit and loss data? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

pl-300 exam questions 11

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 11-2

Scenario: The analysts responsible for each business unit must see all the data the board sees, except the profit and loss data, which must be restricted to only their business unit\’s data. The analysts must be able to build new reports from

the dataset that contains the profit and loss data, but any reports that the analysts build must not be included in the quarterly reports for the board. The analysts must not be able to share the quarterly reports with anyone.

Define roles and rules in Power BI Desktop. You can define roles and rules within Power BI Desktop. When you publish to Power BI, it also publishes the role definitions.

To define security roles, follow these steps.

1. Import data into your Power BI Desktop report, or configure a DirectQuery connection. (step 1: From Power BI Desktop, publish the dataset to powerbi.com)

2. From the Modeling tab, select Manage Roles.

pl-300 exam questions 11-3

3. From the Manage roles window, select Create.

(Step 2: From Power BI Desktop, create four roles.)

4. Under Roles, provide a name for the role.

5. Under Tables, select the table to which you want to apply a DAX rule.

6. In the Table filter DAX expression box, enter the DAX expressions. This expression returns a value of true or false. For example: [Entity ID] = “Value”. (Step 3: From Power BI Desktop, add Table Filter DAX Expression to the roles.)

7. After you\’ve created the DAX expression, select the checkmark above the expression box to validate the expression.

8. Select Save.

pl-300 exam questions 14

Step 4: From powerbi.com, add role members to the roles.

You can’t assign users to a role within Power BI Desktop. You assign them to the Power BI service.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-admin-rls


Question 12:

HOTSPOT

You have a folder of monthly transaction extracts. You plan to create a report to analyze the transaction data.

You receive the following email message: “Hi, I’ve put 24 files of monthly transaction data onto the shared drive. File Transactions201801.csv through Transaction201812.csv have four columns while files Transactions201901.csv through

Transaction201912.csv have the same four columns plus an additional three columns. Each file contains 10 to 50 transactions.”

You get data from the folder and select Combine and Load. The Combine Files dialog box is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

pl-300 exam questions 12

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

pl-300 exam questions 12-2

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 12-3

Box 1: Yes

The four columns used in the 2018 transactions are already displayed.

Box 2: Yes

The columns used are based on the entire dataset. The additional columns in the 2019 files will be detected.

Box 3: Yes

Note: Under the hoods, Power BI will automatically detect which delimiter to use, and may even promote the first row as headers. You can manually change the delimiter, or define how Power BI should handle data types. You can set it to

automatically detect data types based on the first 200 rows or the entire dataset or you can even opt out of the detection of data types.


Question 13:

You use Power 81 Desktop to load data from a Microsoft SQL Server database. While waiting for the data to load, you receive the following error.

pl-300 exam questions 13

You need to resolve the error.

What are two ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Split long-running queries into subsets Of columns and use power Query to the queries

B. Disable query folding on long-running queries

C. Reduce the number of rows and columns returned by each query.

D. Use Power Query to combine long-running queries into one query.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

Your company plans to completely separate development and production assets such as datasets, reports, and dashboards in Microsoft Power BI.

You need to recommend an application lifecycle strategy. The solution must minimize access to production assets and prevent end users from viewing the development assets.

What should you recommend?

A. Create production reports in a separate workspace that uses a shared dataset from the development workspace. Grant the end users access to the production workspace.

B. Create one workspace for development. From the new workspace, publish an app for production.

C. Create a workspace for development and a workspace for production. From the production workspace, publish an app.

D. In one workspace, create separate copies of the assets and append DEV to the names of the copied assets. Grant the end users access to the workspace.

Correct Answer: C

Use different work stages (Development, Test, and Production).

Deploy from the Development workspace.


Question 15:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answers choices, but the text of the scenario is the same in each question in this series.

You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that contains the following tables.

pl-300 exam questions 15

The following columns contain date information:

1. Date[Month] in the mmyyyy format

2. Date[Date_ID] in the ddmmyyyy format

3. Date[Date_name] in the mm/dd/yyyy format

4. Monthly_returns[Month_ID] in the mmyyyy format

The Order table contains more than one million rows.

The Store table has a relationship to the Monthly_returns table on the Store_ID column. This is the only relationship between the tables.

You plan to use Power BI Desktop to create an analytics solution for the data. You need to create a relationship between the Order table and the Store table on the Store_ID column. What should you do before you create the relationship?

A. In the Order table query, use the Table.TrasformRows function.

B. In the Store table query, use the Table.TrasformRows function.

C. In the Store table query, use the Table.TrasformColumnTypes function.

D. In the Order table query, use the Table.TrasformColumnTypes function.

Correct Answer: C

Finally, we have additional PL-300 exam questions [PDF] for free: https://drive.google.com/file/d/16k73OOmvfsLqwnuUJTSBdNqyFaX8c7e_/view?usp=share_link PL-300 pdf

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Free CLF-C01 exam questions 1-13 (from latest CLF-C01 exam dumps ):

Latest questions 1

A company\\’s compliance officer wants to review the AWS Service Organization Control (SOC) reports. Which AWS service or feature should the compliance officer use to complete this task?

A. AWS Artifact
B. AWS Concierge Support
C. AWS Support
D. AWS Trusted Advisor

Correct Answer: A

Latest questions 2

Which of the following components of the AWS Global Infrastructure consists of one or more discrete data centers interconnected through low latency links?

A. Availability Zone
B. Edge location
C. Region
D. Private networking

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/whitepapers/latest/aws-overview/global-infrastructure.html

Latest questions 3

Which AWS services or features can a company use to connect the network of its on- premises data center to AWS? (Select Two.)

A. AWS VPN
B. AWS Directory Service
C. AWS Data Pipeline
D. AWS Direct Connect
E. AWS CloudHSM

Correct Answer: AE

Latest questions 4

Which of the following is the responsibility of AWS?

A. Setting up AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) users and groups
B. Physically destroying storage media at end of life
C. Patching guest operating systems
D. Configuring security settings on Amazon EC2 instances

Correct Answer: B

Media storage devices used to store customer data are classified by AWS as Critical and treated accordingly, as high impact, throughout their life-cycles. AWS has exacting standards on how to install, service, and eventually destroy the devices when they are no longer useful. When a storage device has reached the end of its useful life, AWS decommissions media using techniques detailed in NIST 800-88. Media that stored customer data is not removed from AWS control until it has been securely decommissioned.

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/compliance/data-center/controls/

Latest questions 5

A user is able to set up a master payer account to view consolidated billing reports through:

A. AWS Budgets.
B. Amazon Macie.
C. Amazon QuickSight.
D. AWS Organizations.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/awsaccountbilling/latest/aboutv2/consolidated-billing.html

Latest questions 6

A company wants to improve its security and audit posture by limiting Amazon EC2 inbound access.
What should the company use to access instances remotely instead of opening inbound SSH ports and managing SSH keys?

A. EC2 key pairs
B. AWS Systems Manager Session Manager
C. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
D. Network ACLs

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/systems-manager/latest/userguide/session-manager.html

Latest questions 7

Which of the following consists of one or more isolated data centers in the same regional area that are interconnected through low-latency networks?

A. Availability Zone
B. Edge location
C. AWS Region
D. Private networking

Correct Answer: A

Latest questions 8

Which AWS service offers persistent storage for a file system?

A. Amazon S3
B. Amazon EC2 instance store
C. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
D. Amazon ElastiCache

Correct Answer: C

Latest questions 9

A company is looking for a scalable data warehouse solution. Which of the following AWS solutions would meet the company\\’s needs?

A. Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)
B. Amazon DynamoDB
C. Amazon Kinesis
D. Amazon Redshift

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/redshift/

Latest questions 10

Which AWS services or features provide high availability and low latency by enabling failover across different AWS Regions? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon Route 53
B. Network Load Balancer
C. Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration
D. AWS Global Accelerator
E. Application Load Balancer

Correct Answer: AD

Latest questions 11

Which AWS service can be used to track unauthorized API calls?

A. AWS Config
B. AWS CloudTrail
C. AWS Trusted Advisor
D. Amazon Inspector

Correct Answer: B

Latest questions 12

A developer has a stateful web server on-premises that is being migrated to AWS. The developer must have greater elasticity in the new design. How should the developer re-factor the application to make it more elastic? (Select TWO.)

A. Use pessimistic concurrency on Amazon DynamoDB
B. Use Amazon CloudFront with an Auto Scaling group.
C. Use Amazon CloudFront with an AWS Web Application Firewall
D. Store session state data m an Amazon DynamoDB table.
E. Use an ELB with an Auto Scaling group

Correct Answer: DE

Latest questions 13

A company is running a web application that is using Amazon Cognito for authentication The company does not want to use multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all the visitors every time, but the company\\’s security team has concerns about compromised credentials The development team needs to configure mandatory MFA only when suspicious sign in attempts are detected.

Which Amazon Cognito feature will meet these requirements?

A. Short message service (SMS) text message MFA
B. Advanced security metrics
C. Time-based one-time password (TOTP) software token MFA
D. Adaptive authentication
Correct Answer: D

In a word:

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Latest HPE6-A78 Exam Questions 2022 [Free]

1. A company has Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Aruba Campus APs. and ArubaOS-CX switches. The company plans to use ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to classify endpoints by type The ClearPass admins tell you that they want to run Network scans as part of the solution. What should you do to configure the infrastructure to support the scans?

A. Create a TA profile on the ArubaOS-Switches with the root CA certificate for ClearPass\\’s HTTPS certificate
B. Create device fingerprinting profiles on the ArubaOS-Switches that include SNMP. and apply the profiles to edge ports
C. Create remote mirrors on the ArubaOS-Switches that collect traffic on edge ports, and mirror it to CPPM\\’s IP address.
D. Create SNMPv3 users on ArubaOS-CX switches, and make sure that the credentials match those configured on CPPM

Correct Answer: B

2. What is one way that WPA3-PerSonal enhances security when compared to WPA2- Personal?

A. WPA3-Perscn3i is more secure against password leaking Because all users have their own username and password
B. WPA3-Personal prevents eavesdropping on other users\\’ wireless traffic by a user who knows the passphrase for the WLAN.
C. WPA3-Personal is more resistant to passphrase cracking Because it requires passphrases to be at least 12 characters
D. WPA3-Personal is more complicated to deploy because it requires a backend authentication server

Correct Answer: A

3. What is the benefit of using network aliases in ArubaOS firewall policies?

A. You can associate a reputation score with the network alias to create rules that filler traffic based on reputation rather than IP.
B. You can use the aliases to translate client IP addresses to other IP addresses on the other side of the firewall
C. You can adjust the IP addresses in the aliases, and the rules using those aliases automatically update
D. You can use the aliases to conceal the true IP addresses of servers from potentially untrusted clients.

Correct Answer: A

4. An ArubaOS-CX switch enforces 802.1X on a port. No fan-through options or port-access roles are configured on the port The 802 1X supplicant on a connected client has not yet completed authentication. Which type of traffic does the authenticator accept from the client?

A. EAP only
B. DHCP, DNS, and RADIUS only
C. RADIUS only
D. DHCP, DNS, and EAP only

Correct Answer: A

5. What is the reason to set up a packet capture on an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC)?

A. The company wants to use ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to profile devices and needs to receive HTTP UserAgent strings from the MC.
B. The security team believes that a wireless endpoint connected to the MC is launching an attack and wants to examine the traffic more closely.
C. You want the MC to analyze wireless clients\\’ traffic at a lower level so that the ArubaOS firewall can control the traffic I based on the application.
D. You want the MC to analyze wireless clients\\’ traffic at a lower level so that the ArubaOS firewall can control Web traffic based on the destination URL.

Correct Answer: C

6. What correctly describes the Pairwise Master Key (PMK) in the specified wireless security protocol?

A. In WPA3-Enterprise, the PMK is unique per session and derived using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals.
B. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is unique per session and derived using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals.
C. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is derived directly from the passphrase and is the same for every session.
D. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is the same for each session and is communicated to clients that authenticate

Correct Answer: A

7. What is a guideline for managing local certificates on an ArubaOS-Switch?

A. Before installing the local certificate, create a trust anchor (TA) profile with the root CA certificate for the certificate that you will install
B. Install an Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) certificate to simplify the process of enrolling and re-enrolling for a certificate
C. Generate the certificate signing request (CSR) with a program offline, then, install both the certificate and the private key on the switch in a single file.
D. Create a self-signed certificate online on the switch because ArubaOS-Switches do not support CA-signed certificates.

Correct Answer: C

8. What is the difference between radius and TACACS+?

A. RADIUS combines the authentication and authorization process while TACACS+ separates them.
B. RADIUS uses TCP for Its connection protocol, while TACACS+ uses UDP for its connection protocol.
C. RADIUS encrypts the complete packet, white TACACS+ only offers partial encryption.
D. RADIUS uses Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) in its messages, while TACACS+ does not use them.

Correct Answer: A

9. What is symmetric encryption?

A. It simultaneously creates ciphertext and a same-size MAC.
B. any form of encryption mat ensures that the ciphertext Is the same length as the plaintext.
C. It uses the same key to encrypt plaintext as to decrypt the ciphertext.
D. It uses a Key that is double the size of the message that it encrypts.

Correct Answer: C

10. What is an example of phishing?

A. An attacker sends TCP messages to many different ports to discover which ports are open.
B. An attacker checks a user\’s password by using trying millions of potential passwords.
C. An attacker lures clients to connect to a software-based AP that is using a legitimate SSID.
D. An attacker sends emails posing as a service team member to get users to disclose their passwords.

Correct Answer: D

11. You have an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC). for which you are already using Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to authenticate access to the Web Ul with usernames and passwords You now want to enable managers to use certificates to log in to the Web Ul CPPM will continue to act as the external server to check the names in managers\\’ certificates and tell the MC the managers\\’ correct rote in addition to enabling certificate authentication. What is a step that you should complete on the MC?

A. Verify that the MC has the correct certificates, and add RadSec to the RADIUS server configuration for CPPM
B. install all of the managers\\’ certificates on the MC as OCSP Responder certificates
C. Verify that the MC trusts CPPM\\’s HTTPS certificate by uploading a trusted CA certificate Also, configure a CPPM username and password on the MC
D. Create a local admin account mat uses certificates in the account, specify the correct trusted CA certificate and external authentication

Correct Answer: A

12. You have been instructed to look in the ArubaOS Security Dashboard\\’s client list Your goal is to find clients mat belong to the company and have connected to devices that might belong to hackers. Which client fits this description?

A. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6d;a4; Client Classification Authorized; AP Classification, interfering
B. MAC address d8:50:e6 f3;6e;c5; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Neighbor
C. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6e;60; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Interfering
D. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;TO;ab; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Rogue

Correct Answer: C

13. Refer to the exhibit.
This company has ArubaOS-Switches. The exhibit shows one access layer switch, Swllcn-2. as an example, but the campus actually has more switches. The company wants to stop any internal users from exploiting ARP. What Is the proper way to configure the switches to meet these requirements?

A. On Switch-1, enable ARP protection globally and enable ARP protection on all VLANs.
B. On Switch-2, make ports connected to employee devices trusted ports for ARP protection
C. On Switch-2, enable DHCP snooping globally and on VLAN 201 before enabling ARP protection
D. On Switch-2, configure static PP-to-MAC bindings for all end-user devices on the network

Correct Answer: D

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NSE 5 Network Security Analyst –

The Cybersecurity Analyst designation recognizes your ability to implement cybersecurity management and analysis using Fortinet security appliances.

Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiAnalyzer 6.4 –

The Fortinet NSE 5-FortiAnalyzer 6.4 exam is part of the NSE 5 Cybersecurity Analyst Program and recognizes successful candidates’ knowledge and expertise in FortiAnalyzer.

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You can go through the following to learn more details about Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiAnalyzer 6.4:

Exam Name: Fortinet NSE 5—FortiAnalyzer 6.4
Exam series: NSE5_FAZ-6.4
Time allowed: 60 minutes
Exam questions: 30 multiple-choice questions
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiOS 6.4.1
FortiAnalyzer 6.4.1

Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiAnalyzer 6.4

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QUESTION 1

You are using RAID with a FortiAnalyzer that supports software RAID, and one of the hard disks on FortiAnalyzer has failed. What is the recommended method to replace the disk?

A. Shut down FortiAnalyzer and then replace the disk
B. Downgrade your RAID level, replace the disk, and then upgrade your RAID level
C. Clear all RAID alarms and replace the disk while FortiAnalyzer is still running
D. Perform a hot swap

Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2

Which statements are true of Administrative Domains (ADOMs) in FortiAnalyzer? (Choose two.)

A. ADOMs are enabled by default.
B. ADOMs constrain other administrator\’s access privileges to a subset of devices in the device list.
C. Once enabled, the Device Manager, FortiView, Event Management, and Reports tab display per ADOM.
D. All administrators can create ADOMs–not just the admin administrator.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3

Which two statements are true regarding FortiAnalyzer log forwarding? (Choose two.)

A. In aggregation mode, you can forward logs to syslog and CEF servers as well.
B. Forwarding mode forwards logs in real time only to other FortiAnalyzer devices.
C. Aggregation mode stores logs and content files and uploads them to another FortiAnalyzer device at a scheduled time.
D. Both modes, forwarding and aggregation, support encryption of logs between devices.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.0/cookbook/63238/what-is-the-differencebetween-logforward-and-log-aggregation-modes

QUESTION 4

View the exhibit.

Why is the total quota less than the total system storage?

A. 3.6% of the system storage is already being used.
B. Some space is reserved for system use, such as storage of compression files, upload files, and temporary report files
C. The oftpd process has not archived the logs yet
D. The logfiled process is just estimating the total quota

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.5/administration-guide/368682/disk-space-allocation

QUESTION 5

What statements are true regarding FortiAnalyzer \’s treatment of high availability (HA) dusters? (Choose two)

A. FortiAnalyzer distinguishes different devices by their serial number.
B. FortiAnalyzer receives logs from d devices in a duster.
C. FortiAnalyzer receives bgs only from the primary device in the cluster.
D. FortiAnalyzer only needs to know (he serial number of the primary device in the cluster-it automaticaly discovers the other devices.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6

Which two statements are true regarding log fetching on FortiAnalyzer? (Choose two.)

A. A FortiAnalyzer device can perform either the fetch server or client role, and it can perform two roles at the same time with the same FortiAnalyzer devices at the other end.
B. Log fetching can be done only on two FortiAnalyzer devices that are running the same firmware version.
C. Log fetching allows the administrator to fetch analytics logs from another FortiAnalyzer for redundancy.
D. Log fetching allows the administrator to run queries and reports against historical data by retrieving archived logs from one FortiAnalyzer device and sending them to another FortiAnalyzer device.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/7.0.1/administration-guide/651442/fetchermanagement

QUESTION 7

Which two statements are true regarding FortiAnalyzer operating modes? (Choose two.)

A. When in collector mode, FortiAnalyzer collects logs from multiple devices and forwards these logs in the original binary format.
B. Collector mode is the default operating mode.
C. When in collector mode. FortiAnalyzer supports event management and reporting features.
D. By deploying different FortiAnalyzer devices with collector and analyzer mode in a network, you can improve the overall performance of log receiving, analysis, and reporting

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/7.0.0/administration-guide/227478/collectormode
https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/7.0.0/administration-guide/312644/analyzer-collectorcollaboration

QUESTION 8

For which two SAML roles can the FortiAnalyzer be configured? (Choose two.)

A. Principal
B. Service provider
C. Identity collector
D. Identity provider

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.0/new-features/957811/samladminauthentication#:~:text
=for%20the%20administrator.-,FortiAnalyzer%20can%20play%20the%20role
%20of%20the%20identity%20provider%20(IdP,external%20identity%20provider%20is%20available

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.0/administration-guide/981386/saml-adminauthentication

QUESTION 9

In FortiAnalyzer\’s FormView, source and destination IP addresses from FortiGate devices are not resolving to a hostname. How can you resolve the source and destination IPs, without introducing any additional performance impact to FortiAnalyzer?

A. Configure local DNS servers on FortiAnalyzer
B. Resolve IPs on FortiGate
C. Configure # set resolve-ip enable in the system FortiView settings
D. Resolve IPs on a per-ADOM basis to reduce delay on FortiView while IPs resolve

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

What are offline logs on FortiAnalyzer?

A. Compressed logs, which are also known as archive logs, are considered to be offline logs.
B. When you restart FortiAnalyzer. all stored logs are considered to be offline logs.
C. Logs that are indexed and stored in the SQL database.
D. Logs that are collected from offline devices after they boot up.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://help.fortinet.com/fa/faz50hlp/56/5-6-6/Content/
FortiAnalyzer_Admin_Guide/0300_Key_concepts/0600_Log_Storage/0400_Arch ive_analytics_logs.htm

QUESTION 11

What is the recommended method of expanding disk space on a FortiAnalyzer VM?

A. From the VM host manager, add an additional virtual disk and use the #execute lvm extend command to expand the storage
B. From the VM host manager, expand the size of the existing virtual disk
C. From the VM host manager, expand the size of the existing virtual disk and use the # execute format disk command to reformat the disk
D. From the VM host manager, add an additional virtual disk and rebuild your RAID array

Correct Answer: A

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD40848

QUESTION 12

View the exhibit.

What does the data point at 14:35 tell you?

A. FortiAnalyzer is dropping logs.
B. FortiAnalyzer is indexing logs faster than logs are being received.
C. FortiAnalyzer has temporarily stopped receiving logs so older logs\’ can be indexed.
D. The sqlplugind daemon is ahead in indexing by one log.

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.5/administration-guide/47690/insert-rate-vs-receiverate-widget

QUESTION 13

After you have moved a registered logging device out of one ADOM and into a new ADOM, what is the purpose of running the following CLI command?

A. To reset the disk quota enforcement to default
B. To remove the analytics logs of the device from the old database
C. To migrate the archive logs to the new ADOM
D. To populate the new ADOM with analytical logs for the moved device, so you can run reports

Correct Answer: D

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500-285 Q&As

QUESTION 1

Host criticality is an example of which option?

A. a default whitelist
B. a default traffic profile
C. a host attribute
D. a correlation policy

QUESTION 2

Which statement is true concerning static NAT?

A. Static NAT supports only TCP traffic.
B. Static NAT is normally deployed for outbound traffic only.
C. Static NAT provides a one-to-one mapping between IP addresses.
D. Static NAT provides a many-to-one mapping between IP addresses.

QUESTION 3

Which statement is true in regard to the Sourcefire Security Intelligence lists?

A. The global blacklist universally allows all traffic through the managed device.
B. The global whitelist cannot be edited.
C. IP addresses can be added to the global blacklist by clicking on interactive graphs in Context Explorer.
D. The Security Intelligence lists cannot be updated.

QUESTION 4

Which option is used to implement suppression in the Rule Management user interface?

A. Rule Category
B. Global
C. Source
D. Protocol

QUESTION 5

Access control policy rules can be configured to block based on the conditions that you specify in each rule. Which behavior block response do you use if you want to deny and reset the connection of HTTP traffic that meets the conditions of the access control rule?

A. interactive block with reset
B. interactive block
C. block
D. block with reset

QUESTION 6

The IP address::/0 is equivalent to which IPv4 address and netmask?

A. 0.0.0.0
B. 0.0.0.0/0
C. 0.0.0.0/24
D. The IP address::/0 is not valid IPv6 syntax.

QUESTION 7

Other than navigating to the Network File Trajectory page for a file, which option is an alternative way of accessing the network trajectory of a file?

A. from Context Explorer
B. from the Analysis menu
C. from the cloud
D. from the Defense Center

QUESTION 8

Which policy controls malware blocking configuration?

A. file policy
B. malware policy
C. access control policy
D. IPS policy

QUESTION 9

Which option is true when configuring an access control rule?

A. You can use geolocation criteria to specify source IP addresses by country and continent, as well as destination IP addresses by country and continent.
B. You can use geolocation criteria to specify destination IP addresses by country but not source IP addresses.
C. You can use geolocation criteria to specify source and destination IP addresses by country but not by continent.
D. You can use geolocation criteria to specify source and destination IP addresses by continent but not by country.

QUESTION 10

Stacking allows a primary device to utilize which resources of secondary devices?

A. interfaces, CPUs, and memory
B. CPUs and memory
C. interfaces, CPUs, memory, and storage
D. interfaces and storage

QUESTION 11

Where do you configure widget properties?

A. dashboard properties
B. the Widget Properties button in the title bar of each widget
C. the Local Configuration page
D. Context Explorer

QUESTION 12

When configuring an LDAP authentication object, which server type is available?

A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. Yahoo
C. Oracle
D. SMTP

QUESTION 13

Alert priority is established in which way?
A. event classification
B. priority.conf file
C. host criticality selection
D. through Context Explorer

QUESTION 14

Context Explorer can be accessed by a subset of user roles. Which predefined user role is not valid for FireSIGHT event access?

A. Administrator
B. Intrusion Administrator
C. Security Analyst
D. Security Analyst (Read-Only)

QUESTION 15

Which event source can have a default workflow configured?

A. user events
B. discovery events
C. server events
D. connection events

Correct answer:

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