To pass the Salesforce ADM-201 exam, thorough Salesforce ADM-201 exam preparation is the best Salesforce ADM-201dumps.Pass4itsure Salesforce ADM-201 dumps will help you pass the exam without difficulty. The answers to all your questions are in Pass4itsure Salesforce ADM-201 dumps. Prepare and pass the Salesforce exams with confidence.
Pass4itsure Salesforce ADM-201 dumps cover all ADM-201 exam topics
Pass4itsure Salesforce ADM-201 dumps Vendor: Salesforce Certifications: Salesforce Certified Administrator Exam Code: ADM-201 Exam Name: Administration Essentials for New Admins Update throughout the year Q&As: 1316
Pass4itsure.com has three forms of real Salesforce ADM-201 exam question and answer, you can choose one of them to prepare for the exam.
PDF Only: $45.99
Software + PDF: $59.99
Software Only: $49.99
Salesforce ADM-201 dumps pdf learning material from Pass4itsure
You can get Salesforce ADM-201 pdf dumps from Pass4itsure. The Salesforce ADM-201 exam dumps are carefully compiled to meet your learning needs when preparing for the Salesforce ADM-201 exam. You can easily use it at any time and space.
Salesforce ADM-201 practice test boosted your confidence
To pass the Salesforce ADM-201 exam on the first attempt, you need to solve each problem appropriately and internalize it carefully. Pass4itsure Salesforce ADM-201 dumps practice test is the most suitable study material to ensure your success in Palo Alto Networks certification. Salesforce ADM-201 practice test strengthens your confidence and gives you a real test feeling.
You must be familiar with the subject of the Salesforce ADM-201 exam to take the exam. Pass4itsure Salesforce ADM-201 exam dumps will help you. You are free to choose the best format for dumps. After getting the Salesforce ADM-201 dumps, you will get free updates for up to 365 days! And Pass4itsure promises that if you fail the exam, you will get a free refund! (Refer to the guarantee page for details)
There is no doubt that Pass4itsure Salesforce ADM-201 exam dumps will be an excellent product for everyone to learn from.
To pass the Palo Alto Networks PCNSA exam, thorough Palo Alto Networks PCNSA exam preparation is the best Palo Alto Networks PCNSAdumps.Pass4itsure Palo Alto Networks PCNSA dumps will help you pass the exam without difficulty. The answers to all your questions are in Pass4itsure Palo Alto Networks PCNSA dumps. Prepare and pass the PCNSA exams with confidence.
Pass4itsure Palo Alto Networks PCNSA dumps Vendor: Palo Alto Networks Certifications: Palo Alto Certifications and Accreditations Exam Code: PCNSA Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Administrator Update throughout the year Q&As: 121
Pass4itsure.com has three forms of real Palo Alto Networks PCNSA exam question and answer, you can choose one of them to prepare for the exam.
PDF Only: $45.99
Software + PDF: $59.99
Software Only: $49.99
Palo Alto Networks PCNSA dumps pdf learning material from Pass4itsure
You can get Palo Alto Networks PCNSA pdf dumps from Pass4itsure. The Palo Alto Networks PCNSA exam dumps are carefully compiled to meet your learning needs when preparing for the Palo Alto Networks PCNSA exam. You can easily use it at any time and space.
Palo Alto Networks PCNSA practice test boosted your confidence
To pass the Palo Alto Networks PCNSA exam on the first attempt, you need to solve each problem appropriately and internalize it carefully. Pass4itsure Palo Alto Networks PCNSA dumps practice test is the most suitable study material to ensure your success in Palo Alto Networks certification. Palo Alto Networks PCNSA practice test strengthens your confidence and gives you a real test feeling.
You must be familiar with the subject of the Palo Alto Networks PCNSA exam to take the exam. Pass4itsure Palo Alto Networks PCNSA exam dumps will help you. You are free to choose the best format for dumps. After getting the Palo Alto Networks PCNSA dumps, you will get free updates for up to 365 days! And Pass4itsure promises that if you fail the exam, you will get a free refund! (Refer to the guarantee page for details)
There is no doubt that Pass4itsure Palo Alto Networks PCNSA exam dumps will be an excellent product for everyone to learn from.
Takecertify collected actual Citrix 1Y0-440 questions and answers! The best way to pass the Citrix 1Y0-440 exam: Latest Update Citrix 1Y0-440 dumps, for the full 1Y0-440 dumps pdf, please click on https://www.pass4itsure.com/1y0-440.html! Start your Citrix 1Y0-440 exam preparation today!
You can get the best tips to pass the Citrix 1Y0-440 exam:
Citrix 1Y0-440 exam practice test questions 1-13 share online
QUESTION 1 Scenario: A Citrix Architect has set up NetScaler MPX devices in high availability mode with version 12.0.53.13 nc. These are placed behind a Cisco ASA 5505 Firewall. The Cisco ASA Firewall is configured to block traffic using access control lists. The network address translation (NAT) is also performed on the firewall. The following requirements were captured by the architect during the discussion held as part of the NetScaler security implementation project with the customer\\’s security team: The NetScaler MPX device: 1. should monitor the rate of traffic either on a specific virtual entity or on the device. It should be able to mitigate the attacks from a hostile client sending a flood of requests. The NetScaler device should be able to stop the HTTP, TCP, and DNS based requests. 2. needs to protect backend servers from overloading. 3. needs to queue all the incoming requests on the virtual server level instead of the service level. 4. should provide protection against well-known Windows exploits, virus-infected personal computers, centrally managed automated botnets, compromised webservers, known spammers/hackers, and phishing proxies. 5. should provide flexibility to enforce the decided level of security check inspections for the requests originating from a specific geolocation database. 6. should block the traffic based on a pre-determined header length, URL length, and cookie length. The device should ensure that characters such as a single straight quote (“); backslash (\); and semicolon (;) are either blocked, transformed, or dropped while being sent to the backend server. Which security feature should the architect configure to meet these requirements? A. Global Server Load balancing with Dynamic RTT B. Global Server Load Balancing with DNS views C. Geolocation-based blocking using Application Firewall D. geolocation-based blocking using Responder policies Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A Citrix Architect has met with a team of Workspacelab members for a design discussion. They have captured the following requirements for NetScaler design project: 1. The authentication must be deployed for the users from the workspacelab.com and vendorlab.com domains. 2. The workspacelab users connecting from the internal (workspacelab) network should be authenticated using LDAP. 3. The workspacelab users connecting from the external network should be authenticated using LDAP and RADIUS. 4. The vendorlab users should be authenticated using Active Directory Federation Service. 5. The user credentials must NOT be shared between workspacelab and vendorlab. 6. Single Sign-on must be performed between StoreFront and NetScaler Gateway. 7. A domain drop down list must be provided if the used connects to the NetScaler gateway virtual server externally. Which method must the architect utilize for user management between the two domains? A. Create shadow accounts for the users of the Workspacelab domain in the Vendorlab domain. B. Create a global catalog containing the objects of Vendorlab and Workspacelab domains. C. Create shadow accounts for the Vendorlab domain in the Workspacelab domain. D. Create a two-way trust between the Vendorlab and Workspacelab domains. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Scenario: A Citrix Architect has implemented two high availability pairs of MPX 5500 and MPX 11500 devices respectively with 12.0.53.13 nc version. The NetScaler devices are set up to handle NetScaler Gateway, Load Balancing, Application Firewall, and Content Switching. The Workspacelab infrastructure is set up to be monitored with NMAS version 12.0.53.13 nc by the Workspacelab administrators. The Workspacelab team wants to implement one more pair of NetScaler MPX 7500 devices with version 12.0.53.13 nc. The Citrix consulting team has assigned the task to implement these NetScaler devices in the infrastructure and set them up to be monitored and managed by NMAS. The following are the requirements that were discussed during the project initiation call: 1. NMAS should be configured to get the infrastructure information under sections such as HDX Insight, WEB Insight, and Security Insight. 2. Configuration on the new MPX devices should be identical to MPX 11500 devices. 3. Configuration changes after the deployment and initial setup should be optimized using NMAS. 4. NMAS should be utilized to configure templates that can be utilized by the Workspacelab team in future deployment. 5. As per the requirement from the Workspacelab team, NMAS should be store the audited data for only 15 days. Which process should the architect utilize to ensure that the deployment of MPX 11500 devices are optimized and that it is correct, before deploying the devices in production? A. Under Stylebooks; Inbuilt and composite stylebook templates should be utilized prior to deployment. B. Under Stylebooks; Public and composite stylebook templates should be utilized prior to deployment. C. Under Configuration Management; Configuration Audit and Advice should be used prior to deployment. D. Under Configuration jobs; Configuration Audit and Advice should be used prior to deployment. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess an existing NetScaler multi-site deployment. The deployment is using Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) configured in a parent-child configuration. Click the Exhibit button to view the diagram of the current GSLB configuration and parent-child relationships, as well as the status of the sites and the connectivity between them.
Based on the displayed configuration and status, Chil_site1_______ a connection from _______. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. rejects; SiteP2 and SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1 B. rejects; SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1 C. accepts; SiteP3; becomes its child site D. accepts; SiteP2; becomes its child site E. does NOT receive; SiteP2 and SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1 F. rejects; SiteP2; remains a child site of SiteP1 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess an existing NetScaler configuration. The customer recently found that certain user groups were receiving access to an internal web server with an authorization configuration that does NOT align with the designed security requirements. Click the Exhibit button view the configured authorization settings for the web server.
Which item should the architect change or remove to align the authorization configuration with the security requirements of the organization? A. Item 1 B. Item 3 C. Item 4 D. Item 5 E. Item 2 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 Scenario: A Citrix Architect has deployed two MPX devices, 12.0.53.13 nc and MPX 11500 models, in high availability (HA) pair for the Workspace labs team. The deployment method is two-arm and the devices are installed behind a CISCO ASA 5585 Firewall. The architect enabled the following features on the NetScaler devices. Content Switching, SSL Offloading, Load Balancing, NetScaler Gateway, Application Firewall in hybrid security and Appflow. All are enabled to send monitoring information to NMAS 12.0.53.13 nc build. The architect is preparing to configure load balancing for Microsoft Exchange 2016 server. The following requirements were discussed during the implementation: 1. All traffic needs to be segregated based on applications, and the fewest number of IP addresses should be utilized during the configuration 2. All traffic should be secured and any traffic coming into HTTP should be redirected to HTTPS. 3. Single Sign-on should be created for Microsoft Outlook web access (OWA). 4. NetScaler should recognize Uniform Resource Identifier (URl) and close the session to NetScaler when users hit the Logoff button in Microsoft Outlook web access. 5. Users should be able to authenticate using either user principal name (UPN) or sAMAccountName. 6. The Layer 7 monitor should be configured to monitor the Microsoft Outlook web access servers and the monitor probes must be sent on SSL Which monitor will meet these requirements? A. add lb monitor mon_rpc HTTP-ECV -send “GET /rpc/healthcheck.htm” recv 200 -LRTM DISABLED B. add lb monitor mon_rpc HTTP-ECV -send “GET /rpc/healthcheck.htm” recv 200 -LRTM ENABLED C. add lb monitor mon_rpc HTTP -send “GET /rpc/healthcheck.htm” recv 200 -LRTM DISABLED -secure YES D. add lb monitor mon_rpc HTTP-ECV -send “GET/rpc/healthcheck.htm” recv 200 -LRTM DISABLED -secure YES Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess an existing on-premises NetScaler deployment which includes Advanced Endpoint Analysis scans. During a previous security audit, the team discovered that certain endpoint devices were able to perform unauthorized actions despite NOT meeting pre-established criteria. The issue was isolated to several endpoint analysis (EPA) scan settings. Click the Exhibit button to view the endpoint security requirements and configured EPA policy settings.
Which setting is preventing the security requirements of the organization from being met? A. Item 6 B. Item 7 C. Item 1 D. Item 3 E. Item 5 F. Item 2 G. Item 4 Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 8 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a hybrid XenApp and XenDesktop environment which will include as well as resource locations in an on-premises datacenter and Microsoft Azure. Organizational details and requirements are as follows: 1. Active XenApp and XenDesktop Service subscription 2. No existing NetScaler deployment 3. Minimization of additional costs 4. All users should correct directly to the resource locations containing the servers which will host HDX sessions Click the Exhibit button to view the conceptual environment architecture.
The architect should use___________ in Location A, and should use _______________ in Location B. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. No NetScaler products; NetScaler ICA Proxy (cloud-licensed) B. NetScaler Gateway as a Service; NetScaler ICA Proxy (cloud-licensed) C. NetScaler Gateway as a Service; no NetScaler products D. No NetScaler products; NetScaler Gateway appliance E. NetScaler gateway as a Service; NetScaler ADC (BYO) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Scenario: A Citrix Architect and a team of Workspacelab members have met for a design discussion about the NetScaler Design Project. They captured the following requirements: 1. Two pairs of NetScaler MPX appliances will be deployed in the DMZ network and the internal network. 2. High availability will be accessible between the pair of NetScaler MPX appliances in the DMZ network. 3. Multi-factor authentication must be configured for the NetScaler Gateway virtual server. 4. The NetScaler Gateway virtual server is integrated with XenApp/XenDesktop environment. 5. Load balancing must be deployed for the users from the workspacelab.com and vendorlab.com domains. 6. The logon page must show the workspacelab logo. 7. Certificate verification must be performed to identify and extract the username. 8. The client certificate must have UserPrincipalName as a subject. 9. All the managed workstations for the workspace users must have a client identifications certificate installed on it. 10.The workspacelab users connecting from a managed workstation with a client certificate on it should be authenticated using LDAP. 11.The workspacelab users connecting from a workstation without a client certificate should be authenticated using LDAP and RADIUS. 12.The vendorlab users should be authenticated using Active Directory Federation Service. 13.The user credentials must NOT be shared between workspacelab and vendorlab. 14.Single Sign-on must be performed between StoreFront and NetScaler Gateway. 15.A domain drop down list must be provided if the user connects to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server externally. 16.The domain of the user connecting externally must be identified using the domain selected from the domain drop down list. On performing the deployment, the architect observes that users are always prompted with two-factor authentication when trying to assess externally from an unmanaged workstation. Click the exhibit button to view the configuration.
What should the architect do to correct this configuration? A. Unbind LoginSchema Policy LDAP_RADIUS from the virtual server. B. Bind the Portal theme as Domaindropdown. C. Bind the LoginSchema Policy Domaindropdown to priority 90. D. Bind the Default LoginSchema Policy as Domaindropdown. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 For which three reasons should a Citrix Architect perform a capabilities assessment when designing and deploying a new NetScaler in an existing environment? (Choose three.) A. Understand the skill set of the company. B. Assess and identify potential risks for the design and build phase. C. Establish and prioritize the key drivers behind a project. D. Determine operating systems and application usage. E. Identify other planned projects and initiatives that must be integrated with the design and build phase. Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 11 A Citrix Architect has deployed NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) to monitor a high availability pair of NetScaler VPX devices. The architect needs to deploy automated configuration backup to meet the following requirements: 1. The configuration backup file must be protected using a password. 2. The configuration backup must be performed each day at 8:00 AM GMT. 3. The configuration backup must also be performed if any changes are made in the ns.conf file. 4. Once the transfer is successful, auto-delete the configuration file from the NMAS. Which SNMP trap will trigger the configuration file backup? A. netScalerConfigSave B. sysTotSaveConfigs C. netScalerConfigChange D. sysconfigSave Correct Answer: A Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler-mas/12/instance-management/how-to-backup-and-restore-usingmas.html#configuring-instance-backup-settings
QUESTION 12 Scenario: Based on a discussion between a Citrix Architect and a team of Workspacelab members, the MPX Logical layout for Workspacelab has been created across three (3) sites. They captured the following requirements during the design discussion held for a NetScaler design project: 1. All three (3) Workspacelab sites (DC, NDR, and DR) will have similar NetScaler configurations and design. 2. Both external and internal NetScaler MPX appliances will have Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) configured and deployed in Active/Passive mode. 3. GSLB should resolve both A and AAA DNS queries. 4. In the GSLB deployment, the NDR site will act as backup for the DC site, whereas the DR site will act as backup for the NDR site. 5. When the external NetScaler replies to DNS traffic coming in through Cisco Firepower IPS, the replies should be sent back through the same path. 6. On the internal NetScaler, both the front-end VIP and backend SNIP will be part of the same subnet. 7. The external NetScaler will act as default gateway for the backend servers. 8. All three (3) sites, DC, NDR, and DR, will have two (2) links to the Internet from different service providers configured in Active/Standby mode. Which design decision must the architect make the design requirements above? A. MAC-based Forwarding must be enabled on the External NetScaler Pair. B. NSIP of the External NetScaler must be configured as the default gateway on the backend servers. C. The Internal NetScaler must be deployed in Transparent mode. D. The ADNS service must be configured with an IPv6 address. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to configure a full VPN session profile to meet the following requirements: 1. Users should be able to send the traffic only for the allowed networks through the VPN tunnel. 2. Only the DNS requests ending with the configured DNS suffix workspacelab.com must be sent to NetScaler Gateway. 3. If the DNS query does NOT contain a domain name, then DNS requests must be sent to NetScaler gateway. Which settings will meet these requirements? A. Split Tunnel to OFF, Split DNS Both B. Split Tunnel to ON, Split DNS Local C. Split Tunnel to OFF, Split DNS Remote D. Split Tunnel to ON, Split DNS Remote Correct Answer: B
Pass4itsure shares the latest Citrix exam discount code “Citrix”. Enter the discount code to get a 15% discount!
to sum up:
Are you looking for some tips to pass then I feel this is the best way to pass the 1Y0-440 exam: Get the full Citrix 1Y0-440 exam dumps to access the https://www.pass4itsure.com/1y0-440.html(Q&As Dumps). You can get the best tips here 1Y0-440 Understanding Citrix 1Y0-440 Sharing learning files: free Citrix 1Y0-440 online practice tests to help test your true strength! Citrix 1Y0-440 dumps pdf download online!
The latest Pass4itsure Oracle exam resources are shared here: Oracle exam pdf dumps, Oracle exam video, and the latest purchase discount code. Oracle practice question is designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Oracle 1z0-931, 1z0-997, 1z0-1050, 1z0-1066 exam. https://www.pass4itsure.com/oracle.html The most effective way to pass the exam is the Oracle exam dumps!
QUESTION 1 Which three statements are true regarding how Autonomous Database provides data security? (Choose three.) A. Data is encrypted at rest using transparent data encryption. B. Network connections from clients to Autonomous Database are encrypted using the client credentials wallet. C. Users are given OS logons or SYSDBA privileges to prevent phishing attacks. D. Oracle automatically applies security updates to ensure data is not vulnerable to known attack vectors. Correct Answer: ABD Reference: https://www.oracle.com/database/technologies/datawarehouse-bigdata/adb-faqs.html
QUESTION 2 Once you have a connection to the Autonomous Data Warehouse, how do you import tables into the Oracle Analytics Cloud (OAC)? A. Replicate the table using Golden Gate B. Create a Data Set C. Load data using Data Pump D. Import Table Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which is NOT required to connect to Autonomous Database from SQL developer? A. Database name B. Service name C. Wallet file D. Username and password Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Given the steps: 1. Create Oracle Machine Learning User 2. Create projects 3. Create workspaces 4. Create Notebooks 5. Run SQL Scripts Which two steps are out of order when working with Oracle Machine learning? (Choose two.) A. Create Oracle Machine Learning User B. Create workspaces C. Create Notebooks D. Run SQL Scripts E. Create projects Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 5 The 3rd party application that your customer wants to migrate to Autonomous Database (ADB) has some specific demands like tablespace names, usernames, and init.ora parameters. The decision was made to adhere to the suggested migration method using an instant client and the data pump version that was suggested (and came with it). Which statement is true about the migration of the application\\’s database success? A. The migration can be technically a success but the 3-rd party vendor needs to support the result. B. The suggested data pump version will create an alias for non-standard tablespace names so the migration is successful. C. The tablespace names will result in a blocking error during data pump import because of ADB limitations. D. The migration can be a success, both technically and functional due to data pump enhancements. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 1 You have deployed a web application targeting a global audience across multiple Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) regions. You decide to use Traffic Management Geo-Location based Steering Policy to serve web requests to users from the region closest to the user. Within each region, you have deployed a public load balancer with 4 servers in a backend set. During a DR test disable all web servers in one of the regions however, traffic Management does not automatically direct all users to the other region. Which two are possible causes? A. You did not set up a Route Table associated with load Balancer\\’s subnet B. You did not set up an HTTP Health Check associated with Load Balancer public IP in the disabled region. C. Rather than using Geo-Location based Steering Policy, you should use Failover Policy Type to serve traffic. D. One of the two working web servers In the other region did not pass Its HTTP health check E. You did not correctly set up the Load Balancer HTTP health check policy associated with the backend set Correct Answer: BE Managing Traffic Management GEOLOCATION Steering Policies Geolocation steering policies distribute DNS traffic to different endpoints based on the location of the end-user. Customers can define geographic regions composed of originating continent, countries, or states/provinces (North America) and define a separate endpoint or set of endpoints for each region. The Health Checks service allows you to monitor the health of IP addresses and hostnames, as measured from geographic vantage points of your choosing, using HTTP and ping probes. After configuring a health check, you can view the monitor\\’s results. The results include the location from which the host was monitored, the availability of the endpoint, and the date and time the test was performed. Also, you can Combine Managing Traffic Management GEOLOCATION Steering Policies with Oracle Health Checks to failover from one region to another The Load Balancing service provides health status indicators that use your health check policies to report on the general health of your load balancers and their components. if you misconfigure the health check Protocol between the Load balancer and backend set that can lead to not get an accurate response as the example below If you run a TCP-level health check against an HTTP service, you might not get an accurate response. The TCP handshake can succeed and indicate that the service is up even when the HTTP service is ly configured or having other issues. Although the health check appears good customers might experience transaction failures.
QUESTION 2 A customer has a Virtual Machine instance running in their Oracle Cloud Infrastructure tenancy. They realized that they wrongly picked a smaller shape for their compute instance. They are reaching out to you to help them fix the issue. Which of the below options is best recommended to suggest to the customer? A. Delete the running instance and spin up a new instance with the desired shape. B. Change the shape of the instance without reboot but stop all the applications running on the instance beforehand to prevent data corruption. C. Change the shape of the virtual machine instance using the Change Shape feature available in the console. D. OCI doesn\\’t allow such an operation. Correct Answer: C You can change the shape of a virtual machine (VM) instance without having to rebuild your instances or redeploy your applications. This lets you scale up your Compute resources for increased performance, or scale down to reduce cost. When you change the shape of an instance, you select a different processor, a number of cores, amount of memory, network bandwidth, and maximum number of VNICs for the instance. The instance\\’s public and private IP addresses, volume attachments, and VNIC attachments remain the same.
QUESTION 3 You are helping a customer troubleshoot a problem. The customer has several Oracle Linux servers in Based on cost considerations, which option will fix this Issue? A. Create a Public Load Balancer In front of the servers and add the servers to the Backend Set of the Public Load Balancer. B. Create another Internet Gateway and configure it as a route target for the private subnet. C. Implement a NAT instance In the public subnet of the VCN and configure the NAT instance as the route target for the private subnet. D. Create a NAT gateway in the VCN and configure the NAT gateway as the route target for the private subnet. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 As a part of the migration exercise for an existing on-premises application to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCT), yon ore required to transfer a 7 TB file to OCI Object Storage. You have decided to upload the functionality of Object Storage. Which two statements are true? A. Active multipart upload can be checked by listing all parts that have been uploaded, however, It Is not possible to list information for individual object part in an active multipart upload B. It is possible to spill this file into multiple parts using the APIs provided by Object Storage. C. It is possible to split this file into multiple parts using the clone tool provided by Object Storage. D. After initiating a multipart upload by making a CreateMultlPartUpload RESI API Call, the upload remains active until you explicitly commit it or abort. E. Contiguous numbers need to be assigned for each part so that Object Storage constructs the object by ordering, part numbers in ascending order Correct Answer: AD You can check on an active multipart upload by listing all parts that have been uploaded. (You cannot list information for an individual object part in an active multipart upload.) After you finish creating object parts, initiate a multipart upload by making a CreateMultipartUpload REST API call. Provide the object name and any object metadata. Object Storage responds with a unique upload ID that you must include in any requests related to this multipart upload. Object Storage also marks the upload as active. The upload remains active until you explicitly commit it or abort it.
QUESTION 5 An automobile company wants to deploy their CRM application for Oracle Database on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OC1) DB Systems for one of the major clients. In compliance with the Business Continuity Program of the client, they need to provide a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 24 hours and a Recovery time objective (RTO) of 24 hours and Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of 1 hour. The CRM application should be an available oven in my event that entire on The region is down. Which approach Is the most suitable and cost-effective configuration for this scenario? A. Deploy a 1 node VM Oracle database in one region and replicate the database to a 1 node VM Oracle database in another region using a manual setup and configuration of Oracle Data Guard. B. Deploy a 2 node Virtual Machine (VM) Oracle RAC database in one region and replicate the database to a 2 node VM Oracle RAC database in another region using a manual setup and C. Deploy a 1 node VM Oracle database in one region. Manual Configure a Recovery Manager (RMAN) database backup schedule to take hourly database backups. Asynchronously copy the database backups to object storage in another OCI region, If the primary OCI region is unavailable launch a new 1 new VM Database in the other OCI region to restore the production database from the backup. D. Deploy an Autonomous Transaction Processing (Serverless) database in one region and replicate it to an Autonomous Transaction Processing (Serverless) database in another region Oracle GoldenGate. Correct Answer: A You can configure the Autonomous Database instance as a target database for Oracle GoldenGate. But You can\\’t set up Oracle Autonomous Database as a source database for Oracle GoldenGate. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 24 hours and Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of 1 hour -To provision new VM and restore the production database from the backup on object storage, will exceed the RTO 1 hour – You can create the standby DB system in a different availability domain from the primary DB system for availability and disaster recovery purposes. With Data Guard and switchover/failover can meet RTO 1 hour. -RAC Database is not required in this solution. Standalone will be most suitable and cost-effective
QUESTION 1 Your customer has the finance system in a third party system and you have to send the payroll costing entries to a third party system. Which two options can be used to extract the data from the Cloud Payroll system? A. You cannot extract the costing results from cloud payroll to send it to a third-party financial system. B. You can use the OTBI Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2 You are creating a car allowance element. The rules for this allowance need to reference the salary balance. How can Do you meet this requirement? A. Enter the salary balance value as an input value on the car allowance element. B. Associate the salary balance to a calculation card and reference the calculation card in the allowance element formula. C. Create a balanced feed to feed the salary balance to the car allowance element. D. Reference the database item and appropriate dimension for the salary balance in the allowance element formula. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which two statements regarding the relationship between legal entities, legal employers, and payroll statutory units (PSU) are correct? (Choose two.) A. A legal employer can be associated with multiple PSUs B. A legal entity can be both a legal employer and a PSU C. Legal entities responsible for paying workers D. PSUs are legal entities responsible for payroll tax and social insurance reporting Correct Answer: CD Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/financials/r13-update17d/faigl/legal-entities.html#FAIGL1453110
QUESTION 4 Which option represents the costing hierarchy necessary to build a cost account when the element costing is defined with costing type as “Cost”? A. Element Eligibility, Payroll, Department, Job or Position, Person, Element Entry B. Payroll, Element Eligibility, Department, Job, Position, Person Person Element, Element Entry C. Payroll, Department, Job or Position, Element Eligibility, Person, Element Entry D. Payroll, Person Element Entry, Department, Job or Position, Person, Element Eligibility Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 A customer\\’s organization has a grade structure with four grades –C1, C2, C3, and C4. You have a car allowance element, which is at Assignment level, for which only the employees with grade C3 and C4 are eligible. You should not be able to create an element entry for employees with grades C1 and C2. How do you define the element eligibility for the Car Allowance element? A. Define the element eligibility as an Open Eligibility and create an element entry only for employees with grades C3 and C4. B. Define multiple-element eligibilities using grade C1, C2, C3, and C4 but create an element entry only for employees with grades C3 and C4. C. Define multiple-element eligibilities using grade C3 and C4 only. D. You cannot meet the requirement as you cannot create element eligibility using grade as the eligibility criteria. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 1 Demand is high leading up to the Christmas holiday every year between Dec 20 and Dec 24 and not on Christmas day (Dec 25). Your customer has two demand plans. Describe the steps to model Christmas causal factor in both demand plans. A. Open a demand plan and add a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Create a table displaying the causal factor measure and relevant time period and modify as required. Causal factor changes in this demand plan will reflect in the 2nd demand plan also. B. Open a demand plan and add a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Create a table displaying the causal factor measure and relevant time period and modify as required. Causal factor changes are plan specific, so repeat the steps in the 2nd demand plan. C. Use FBDI to create a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Place value of 1 from Dec 20 to Dec 34. Causal factor upload to one demand plan will reflect in the 2nd demand plan also. D. Use FBDI to create a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Place value of 1 from Dec 20 to Dec 24. Causal factor changes are plan specific, so repeat the steps in the 2nd demand plan. E. Open a demand plan and edit Christmas casual factor measure. Place value of one from Dec 20 to Dec 24 and zero for non-impacted days including Dec 25. Causal factor changes in this demand plan will reflect in the 2nd demand plan also. F. Open a demand plan and edit Christmas casual factor measure. Place value of one from Dec 20 to Dec 24 and zero for non-impacted days including Dec 25. Causal factor changes are plan specific, so repeat the steps in the 2nd demand plan. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is one method of associating a Safety Stock Quantity value to an item? A. Upload the value using File Based Data Import (FBDI) B. Enter your value in the Safety Stock Quantity column in the Items page. C. Run the Safety Stock Quantity Update Process. D. Enter your value in the Safety Stock Quantity Override column in the Items page. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Your client has a requirement to restrict Supply Plan data access. Identify three Data Access Set detail entities that can be used to restrict plan data access. (Choose three.) A. Supplier B. Item C. Transaction Type D. Customer E. Material Planner F. Demand Class Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 4 In order for Supply and Demand Plans to run successfully, which three Configure Planning Analytic tasks must be completed? (Choose three.) A. Set up Levels and Attributes B. Set up Measure Catalogs C. Run the Configure Dimension Catalog process D. Set up Default Catalogs E. Set up Dimension Catalogs F. Set up Hierarchy Attributes Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 5 You have run a plan for your organization and there were sales orders that have been set up for drop shipment that you cannot see in the plan. Which two options explain why the sales orders cannot be seen in the plan? (Choose two.) A. Drop Ship Item Validation Org has not been set up. B. Drop Ship Demand Class has not be set up. C. Supplier not configured in Manage Planning Source Systems D. Include drop ship demands and supplies flag has not been checked on your plan options. E. Planning Profile \\’Enable Planning for Drop Shipments\\’ has not been set to \\’Yes\\’. Correct Answer: BC
The latest discount code “2020PASS” is provided below.
P.S
In this article, Pass4itsure share: Latest Oracle (1z0-931, 1z0-997, 1z0-1050, 1z0-1066) practice questions, latest Oracle exam pdf dumps, Oracle exam video learning. For more questions, please visit https://www.pass4itsure.com/oracle.html Study hard and practice a lot. Good luck!
Here, I will discuss some amazing facts about the “Pass4itsure” exam dumps preparation product, as well as Newly released Isaca CISA exam dumps, purchase discounts, use and pass the Isaca certification CISA exam at the first attempt. Pass the Isaca CISA exam (First: Exam practice test, Second: Pass4itsure Isaca expert.) Choose: https://www.pass4itsure.com/cisa.html Study hard to pass the exam easily.
Get success in Isaca CISA exam easily
Pass4itsure CISA exam dumps are easy to use
Real “Pass4itsure” Isaca CISA exam questions
CISA exam dumps pdf and CISA exam video
Get your money-Back in case of failure in Isaca CISA exam dumps
Pass4itsure discount code 2020
Get Success in Isaca CISA Exam Easily
“Pass4itsure” is a well-known name. The latest Isaca CISA test questions dumps PDF practice exam. “Pass4itsure” ensures that users of their products not only gain knowledge, but also succeed in exams.
Pass4itsure CISA exam dumps are easy to use
The “Pass4itsure” product is in the form of CISA PDF dumps, CISA exam video and CISA practice exam test, which is very easy to buy and use.
Real “Pass4itsure” Isaca CISA exam questions
Practice frequently asked questions to help you pass the Isaca CISA exam at the first attempt.
QUESTION 1 The MAIN reason for requiring that all computer clocks across an organization be synchronized is to: A. prevent omission or duplication of transactions. B. ensure smooth data transition from client machines to servers. C. ensure that e-mail messages have accurate time stamps. D. support the incident investigation process. Correct Answer: D During an investigation of incidents, audit logs are used as evidence, and the time stamp information in them is useful. If the clocks are not synchronized, investigations will be more difficult because a time line of events might not be easily established. Time-stamping a transaction has nothing to do with the update itself. Therefore, the possibility of omission or duplication of transactions does not exist. Data transfer has nothing to do with the time stamp. While the time stamp on an e-mail may not be accurate, this is not a significant issue.
QUESTION 2 A maturity model can be used to aid the implementation of IT governance by identifying: A. critical success factors B. performance drivers C. improvement opportunities D. accountabilities Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which of the following step of PDCA request a corrective actions on significant differences between the actual versus the planned result? A. Plan B. Do C. Check D. Act Correct Answer: D Act – Request corrective actions on significant differences between actual and planned results. Analyze the differences to determine their root causes. Determine where to apply changes that will include improvement of the process or product. When a pass through these four steps does not result in the need to improve, the scope to which PDCA is applied may be refined to plan and improve with more detail in the next iteration of the cycle, or attention needs to be placed in a different stage of the process. For your exam you should know the information below: PDCA (plan?o?heck?ct or plan?o?heck?djust) is an iterative four-step management method used in business for the control and continuous improvement of processes and products. It is also known as the Deming circle/cycle/wheel, Stewart cycle, control circle/cycle, or plan?o?tudy?ct (PDSA). Another version of this PDCA cycle is OPDCA. The added “O” stands for observation or as some versions say “Grasp the current condition.” The steps in each successive PDCA cycle are:
“CHECK” and “ACT” steps. CHECK – Study the actual results (measured and collected in “DO” above) and compare against the expected results (targets or goals from the “PLAN”) to ascertain any differences The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: CISA review manual 2014 page number 107
QUESTION 4 Which of the following access control situations represents the MOST serious control weakness? A. Computer operators have access to system level flowcharts. B. Programmers have access to development hardware. C. End users have access to program development tools. D. System developers have access to production data. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which of the following penetration tests would MOST effectively evaluate incident handling and response capabilities of an organization? A. Targeted testing B. External testing C. internal testing D. Double-blind testing Correct Answer: D In a double-blind test, the administrator and security staff are not aware of the test, which will result in an assessment of the incident handling and response capability in an organization. In targeted, external, and internal testing, the system administrator and security staff are aware of the tests since they are informed before the start of the tests.
QUESTION 6 An organization has implemented a disaster recovery plan. Which of the following steps should be carried out next? A. Obtain senior management sponsorship. B. Identify business needs. C. Conduct a paper test. D. Perform a system restore test. Correct Answer: C A best practice would be to conduct a paper test. Senior management sponsorship and business needs identification should have been obtained prior to implementing the plan. A paper test should be conducted first, followed by system or full testing.
QUESTION 7 An IS auditor is reviewing the physical security measures of an organization. Regarding the access card system, the IS auditor should be MOST concerned that: A. nonpersonalized access cards are given to the cleaning staff, who use a sign-in sheet but show no proof of identity. B. access cards are not labeled with the organization\\’s name and address to facilitate easy return of a lost card. C. card issuance and rights administration for the cards are done by different departments, causing unnecessary lead time for new cards. D. the computer system used for programming the cards can only be replaced after three weeks in the event of a system failure. Correct Answer: A Physical security is meant to control who is entering a secured area, so identification of all individuals is of utmost importance. It is not adequate to trust unknown external people by allowing them to write down their alleged name without proof, e.g., identity card, driver\\’s license. Choice B is not a concern because if the name and address of the organization was written on the card, a malicious finder could use the card to enter the organization\\’s premises. Separating card issuance from technical rights management is a method to ensure a proper segregation of duties so that no single person can produce a functioning card for a restricted area within the organization\\’s premises. Choices B and C are good practices, not concerns. Choice D may be a concern, but not as important since a system failure of the card programming device would normally not mean that the readers do not function anymore. It simply means that no new cards can be issued, so this option is minor compared to the threat of improper identification.
QUESTION 8 To restore service at a large processing facility after a disaster, which of the following tasks should be performed FIRST? A. Launch the emergency action team. B. Inform insurance company agents. C. Contact equipment vendors. D. Activate the reciprocal agreement. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Back Orifice is an example of: A. a virus. B. a legitimate remote control software. C. a backdoor that takes the form of an installed program. D. an eavesdropper. E. None of the choices. Correct Answer: C “A backdoor may take the form of an installed program (e.g., Back Orifice) or could be in the form of an existing “”legitimate”” program, or executable file. A specific form of backdoors are rootkits, which replaces system binaries and/or hooks into the function calls of the operating system to hide the presence of other programs, users, services and open ports.”
QUESTION 10 Which of the following methods of encryption has been proven to be almost unbreakable when correctly used? A. key pair B. Oakley C. certificate D. 3-DES E. one-time pad F. None of the choices. Correct Answer: E Explanation: It\\’s possible to protect messages in transit by means of cryptography. One method of encryption – the onetime pad –has been proven to be unbreakable when correctly used. This method uses a matching pair of key- codes, securely distributed, which are used once-and-only-once to encode and decode a single message. Note that this method is difficult to use securely, and is highly inconvenient as well.
QUESTION 11 Which of the following BEST characterizes a mantrap or deadman door, which is used as a deterrent control for the vulnerability of piggybacking? A. A monitored double-doorway entry system B. A monitored turnstile entry system C. A monitored doorway entry system D. A one-way door that does not allow exit after entry Correct Answer: A A monitored double-doorway entry system, also referred to as a mantrap or deadman door, is used a deterrent control for the vulnerability of piggybacking.
QUESTION 12 Ensuring that security and control policies support business and IT objectives is a primary objective of: A. An IT security policies audit B. A processing audit C. A software audit D. A vulnerability assessment Correct Answer: A Ensuring that security and control policies support business and IT objectives is a primary objective of an IT security policies audit.
QUESTION 13 Which of the following statement correctly describes the difference between symmetric key encryption and asymmetric key encryption? A. In symmetric key encryption the same key is used for encryption and decryption where as asymmetric key uses private key for encryption and decryption B. In symmetric key encryption the public key is used for encryption and the symmetric key for decryption. Where as in asymmetric key encryption the public key is used for encryption and private key is used for decryption C. In symmetric key encryption the same key is used for encryption and decryption where as in asymmetric key encryption the public key is used for encryption and private key is used for decryption. D. Both uses private key for encryption and the decryption process can be done using public key Correct Answer: C There are two basic techniques for encrypting information: symmetric encryption (also called secret key encryption) and asymmetric encryption (also called public key encryption.) Symmetric Encryption Symmetric encryption is the oldest and best-known technique. A secret key, which can be a number, a word, or just a string of random letters, is applied to the text of a message to change the content in a particular way. This might be as simple as shifting each letter by a number of places in the alphabet. As long as both sender and recipient know the secret key, they can encrypt and decrypt all messages that use this key. Few examples of symmetric key algorithms are DES, AES, Blowfish, etc Asymmetric Encryption The problem with secret keys is exchanging them over the Internet or a large network while preventing them from falling into the wrong hands. Anyone who knows the secret key can decrypt the message. One answer is the usage of asymmetric encryption, in which there are two related keys, usually called a key pair. The public key is made freely available to anyone who might want to send you a message. The second key, called the private key is kept secret, so that only you know it. Any message (text, binary files, or documents) that are encrypted using the public key can only be decrypted by the matching private key. Any message that is encrypted by using the private key can only be decrypted by using the matching public key. This means that you do not have to worry about passing public keys over the Internet (the keys are supposed to be public).A problem with asymmetric encryption, however, is that it is slower than symmetric encryption. It requires far more processing power to both encrypt and decrypt the content of the message. Few examples of asymmetric key algorithms are RSA, Elliptic key Cryptography (ECC), El Gamal, Differ-Hellman, etc The following were incorrect answers: The other options don\\’t describe correctly the difference between symmetric key and asymmetric key encryption. The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: CISA review manual 2014 Page number 348 and 349 http://support.microsoft.com/kb/246071
You may be interested in other exam dumps! click here.
Get your money-Back in case of failure in Isaca CISA exam dumps
“Pass4itsure” ensures that when using CISA test questions, users can pass the test in the first attempt. However, in any case, if you fail, you can apply for your money. Now you don’t need to worry about your money loss.
Pass4itsure discount code 2020
P.S.
Know how important your time is, so that’s why you didn’t waste time. Here is for you, free of charge The latest and effective Isaca CISA exam dumps, Isaca CISA exam questions, CISA exam video.
AZ-203 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure exam, Takecertify’s newly released Microsoft Azure AZ-203 dumps will fully prepare you for the AZ-203 exam, you can pass the exam in the first time. You can safely choose https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-203.html to meet all your certification preparation needs.
Obtaining Microsoft Azure certification can prove your skills in using Microsoft Azure. To obtain Microsoft Azure certification, you need real AZ-203 dumps!
Free Share AZ-203 Free Demo From Pass4itsure Microsoft Azure AZ-203 Dumps
QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP You are developing a .NET Core model-view controller (MVC) application hosted on Azure for a health care system that allows providers access to their information. You develop the following code:
You define a role named SysAdmin. You need to ensure that the application meets the following authorization requirements: Allow the ProviderAdmin and SysAdmin roles access to the Partner controller regardless of whether the user holds an editor claim of partner. Limit access to the Manage action of the controller to users with an editor claim of partner who are also members of the SysAdmin role. How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation: Box 1: Allow the ProviderAdmin and SysAdmin roles access to the Partner controller regardless of whether the user holds an editor claim of partner. Box 2: Limit access to the Manage action of the controller to users with an editor claim of partner who are also members of the SysAdmin role.
QUESTION 2 You need to resolve the Policy Loss issue. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Add an Azure Event Hub. Send the policy to the event hub. Configure the Policy service to read actions from the event hub. B. Add an Azure Service Bus queue. Send the policy to the queue. Configure the Policy service to read actions from the queue. C. Add an Azure Queue storage queue. Send the policy to the queue. Configure the Policy service to read actions from the queue. D. Add an Azure Service Bus topic. Send the policy to the topic. Configure the Policy service to read actions from the topic. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT You are developing an Azure Function App by using Visual Studio. The app will process orders input by an Azure Web App. The web app places the order information into Azure Queue Storage. You need to review the Azure Function App code shown below.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
When there are multiple queue messages waiting, the queue trigger retrieves a batch of messages and invokes function instances concurrently to process them. By default, the batch size is 16. When the number being processed gets down to 8, the runtime gets another batch and starts processing those messages. So the maximum number of concurrent messages being processed per function on one virtual machine (VM) is 24. Box 4: Yes References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-bindings-storage-queue
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT You need to update the order workflow to address the issue when calling the Printer API App. How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Fixed To specify that the action or trigger waits the specified interval before sending the next request, set the to fixed. Box 2: PT10S Box 3: 5 Scenario: Calls to the Printer API App fail periodically due to printer communication timeouts. Printer communication timeouts occur after 10 seconds. The label printer must only receive up to 5 attempts within one minute.
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT You need to ensure that security requirements are met. What value should be used for the ConnectionString field on line DB03 in the Database class? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area; NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Integrated Security=SSPI Integrated security: For all data source types, connect using the current user account. For SqlClient you can use Integrated Security=true; or Integrated Security=SSPI; Scenario: All access to Azure Storage and Azure SQL database must use the application\\’s Managed Service Identity (MSI) Box 2: Encrypt = True Scenario: All data must be protected in transit. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/adonet/connection-string-syntax
QUESTION 6 HOTSPOT You need to tool code at line LE03 of Login Event to ensure that all authentication events are processed correctly. How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area; NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 You are developing a project management service by using ASP.NET. The service hosts conservations, files, to-do lists, and a calendar that users can interact with at any time. The application uses Azure Search for allowing users to search for keywords in the project data. You need to implement code that creates the object which is used to create indexes in the Azure Search service. Which two objects should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. SearchCredentials B. SearchIndexClient C. SearchServiceClient D. SearchService Correct Answer: BC The various client libraries define classes like Index, Field, and Document, as well as operations like Indexes.Create and Documents.Search on the SearchServiceClient and SearchIndexClient classes. Example: The sample application we\\’ll be exploring creates a new index named “hotels”, populates it with a few documents, then executes some search queries. Here is the main program, showing the overall flow: / This sample shows how to delete, create, upload documents and query an index static void Main(string[] args) { IConfigurationBuilder builder = new ConfigurationBuilder().AddJsonFile(“appsettings.json”); AZ-203 VCE Dumps | AZ-203 Study Guide | AZ-203 Braindumps 11 / 18 https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-203.html 2020 Latest pass4itsure AZ-203 PDF and VCE dumps Download IConfigurationRoot configuration = builder.Build(); SearchServiceClient serviceClient = CreateSearchServiceClient(configuration); Console.WriteLine(“{0}”, “Deleting index…\n”); DeleteHotelsIndexIfExists(serviceClient); Console.WriteLine(“{0}”, “Creating index…\n”); CreateHotelsIndex(serviceClient); ISearchIndexClient indexClient = serviceClient.Indexes.GetClient(“hotels”); References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/search/search-howto-dotnet-sdk
QUESTION 8 DRAG DROP You need to ensure that PolicyLib requirements are met. How should you complete the code segment? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9 You are developing an internal website for employees to view sensitive data. The website uses Azure Active Directory (AAD) for authentication. You need to implement multifactor authentication for the website. What should you do? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Upgrade to Azure AD Premium. B. In Azure AD conditional access, enable the baseline policy. C. In Azure AD, create a new conditional access policy. D. In Azure AD, enable application proxy. E. Configure the website to use Azure AD B2C. Correct Answer: AC A: Multi-Factor Authentication comes as part of the following offerings: Azure Active Directory Premium licenses – Full featured use of Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Service (Cloud) or Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server (On-premises). Multi-Factor Authentication for Office 365 Azure Active Directory Global Administrators C: MFA Enabled by conditional access policy. It is the most flexible means to enable two-step verification for your users. Enabling using conditional access policy only works for Azure MFA in the cloud and is a premium feature of Azure AD. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-getstarted
QUESTION 10 You are developing a software solution for an autonomous transportation system. The solution uses large data sets and Azure Batch processing to simulate navigation sets for entire fleets of vehicles. You need to create compute nodes for the solution on Azure Batch. What should you do? A. In the Azure portal, add a Job to a Batch account. B. In a .NET method, call the method: BatchClient.PoolOperations.CreateJob C. In Python, implement the class: JobAddParameter D. In Azure CLI, run the command: az batch pool create Correct Answer: B A Batch job is a logical grouping of one or more tasks. A job includes settings common to the tasks, such as priority and the pool to run tasks on. The app uses the BatchClient.JobOperations.CreateJob method to create a job on your pool. Note: Step 1: Create a pool of compute nodes. When you create a pool, you specify the number of compute nodes for the pool, their size, and the operating system. When each task in your job runs, it\\’s assigned to execute on one of the nodes in your pool. Step 2 : Create a job. A job manages a collection of tasks. You associate each job to a specific pool where that job\\’s tasks will run. Step 3: Add tasks to the job. Each task runs the application or script that you uploaded to process the data files it downloads from your Storage account. As each task completes, it can upload its output to Azure Storage. Incorrect Answers: C: To create a Batch pool in Python, the app uses the PoolAddParameter class to set the number of nodes, VM size, and a pool configuration. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/quick-run-dotnet
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT You need to implement the Log policy. How should you complete the EnsureLogging method in EventGridController.cs? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 DRAG DROP You develop software solutions for a mobile delivery service. You are developing a mobile app that users can use to order from a restaurant in their area; The app uses the following workflow: 1. A driver selects the restaurants for which they will deliver orders. 2. Orders are sent to all available drivers in an area; 3. Only orders for the selected restaurants will appear for the driver. 4. The first driver to accept an order removes it from the list of available orders. You need to implement an Azure Service Bus solution. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You need to meet the vendor notification requirement. Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud -based email service. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
Get the newest exam questions for Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure AZ-203. https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-203.html Q&As: 161. Updated questions and answers for free.Using the right Dumps can help you pass the exam quickly.The free az-203 dumps are shared above to help you learn successfully.
Are you looking for the Cisco 350-701 SCOR exam questions in PDF? Here is the latest Cisco 350-701 exam questions learning materials for you: Latest Cisco 350-701 practice questions, latest Cisco 350-701 pdf dumps, Cisco 350-701 exam video learning. Free resources from https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-701.html We Devoted to helping you 100% pass all exams!
Pass4itsure providing most updated Cisco 350-701 exam question answers. Here are a few:
QUESTION 1 Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution? A. Sensitive data must remain onsite. B. Demand is unpredictable. C. The server team wants to outsource this service. D. ESA is deployed inline. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command? A. authenticates the IKEv2 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX B. authenticates the IP address of the 172.16.0.0/32 peer by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX C. authenticates the IKEv1 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX D. secures all the certificates in the IKE exchange by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/security/a1/sec-a1-cr-book/sec-crc4.html#wp6039879000
QUESTION 3 Which two features are used to configure Cisco ESA with a multilayer approach to fight viruses and malware? (Choose two.) A. Sophos engine B. white list C. RAT D. outbreak filters E. DLP Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4 Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two.) A. 64-bit block size, 112-bit key length B. 64-bit block size, 168-bit key length C. 128-bit block size, 192-bit key length D. 128-bit block size, 256-bit key length E. 192-bit block size, 256-bit key length Correct Answer: CD Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Advanced_Encryption_Standard
QUESTION 5 On which part of the IT environment does DevSecOps focus? A. application development B. wireless network C. data center D. perimeter network Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two.) A. Enable browser alerts for fraudulent websites. B. Define security group memberships. C. Revoke expired CRL of the websites. D. Use antispyware software. E. Implement email filtering techniques. Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 7 Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering attacks? (Choose two.) A. Patch for cross-site scripting. B. Perform backups to the private cloud. C. Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint. D. Install a spam and virus email filter. E. Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 8 Which option best describes RPL? A. RPL stands for Routing over low priority links that use link-state LSAs to determine the best route between two root border routers. B. RPL stands for Routing over low priority links that use distance vector DOGAG to determine the best route between two root border routers. C. RPL stands for Routing over Low-power Lossy Networks that use link-state LSAs to determine the best route between leaves and the root border router. D. RPL stands for Routing over Low-power Lossy Networks that use distance vector DOGAG to determine the best route between leaves and the root border router. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection? A. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address bindings from the DHCP snooping binding database. B. In a typical network, make all ports as trusted except for the ports connecting to switches, which are untrusted. C. DAI associates a trust state with each switch. D. DAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which three statements about VRF-Aware Cisco Firewall are true? (Choose three) A. It supports both global and per-VRF commands and DoS parameters. B. It enables service providers to deploy firewalls on customer devices. C. It can generate syslog messages that are visible only to individual VPNs. D. It can support VPN networks with overlapping address ranges without NAT. E. It enables service providers to implement firewalls on PE devices. F. It can run as more than one instance. Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 11 The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of a network? A. SDN controller and the cloud B. management console and the SDN controller C. management console and the cloud D. SDN controller and the management solution Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cisco ISE for the admin login to work? A. RSA SecureID B. Internal Database C. Active Directory D. LDAP Correct Answer: C
Pass4itsure offers you up to date 350-701 exam dumps material that confirms your success in the exam. It is a different site and the thing that makes it unique is that it covers all relevant material needed to pass the 350-701 exam. They provide you the latest exam questions with 100% money back guarantee.
Pass4itsure discount code 2020
The latest discount code “2020PASS” is provided below. 350-701 exam dumps off 12%!
Apple 9l0-400 Exam Study Guide. You can find all exam related study materials （Apple 9L0-400 exam dumps, 9L0-400 video, 9L0-400 practice questions）below to help you prepare for the exam. https://www.pass4itsure.com/9l0-400.html Pass4itsure Apple experts provide you with a complete 9L0-400 dump!
Apple 9l0-400 Full Certification Dumps
Study, prepare, and pass your Apple 9l0-400 exam with dumps
100% Pass Your Apple ACHDS 9L0-400 with Latest Actual Exam Questions & Answers
QUESTION 1 Booting Mac OS X v10.3 in verbose mode is most useful as a troubleshooting tool when _____________. A. The system repeatedly crashes during startup B. You repeatedly encounter application crashes. C. The computer cannot communicate with a printer D. You repeatedly encounter system crashes after logging in Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 To set up PPPoE, which port must you configure? A. Modem B. Ethernet C. FireWire D. AppleTalk Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 On a system with Mac OS X v10.3, you see the message, “You need to restart your computer. Hold down the Power button for several seconds or press the Restart button.” What does this message indicate? A. A kernel panic has occurred. B. Mac OS X must be reinstalled C. The computer\\’s firmware needs to be updated. D. The user activated a forced quit and restart. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which Mac OS X v10.3 utility is helpful when troubleshooting a computer\\’s Ethernet connectivity? A. Network Utility B. Activity Monitor C. Network Monitor D. Internet Connect Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 About which three system properties will System Profiler provide information? (Choose three.) A. Installed PCI cards B. Default network printer C. Configured share points D. Connected USB devices E. Connected FireWire devices F. Status of personal file sharing Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 6 Using Directory Access, you can configure your computer to__________. A. Use a specific WINS server for SMB service discovery. B. Be a member of more than one Windows workgroup. C. Disable Finder\\’s Connect to Server feature. D. Use AppleTalk to discover SMB services. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Which statement about FileVault is TRUE? A. Once a user enables FileVault, it cannot be disabled. B. FileVault can only be enabled for non-administrator user accounts. C. There is no way to recover a FileVault-protected account user\\’s data if the password is lost. D. When a user enables FileVault, that user\\’s home directory is transferred into an encrypted disk image. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A non-administrative Mac OS X v10.3 user named “drking” wants to use an iMac with Mac OS X v10.3 as web server. Where should he put his HTML files to be shared? A. /Users/Public B. /Users/Shared C. /Users/drbill/Sites D. /Users/drbill/Shared Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 What permissions can you set on file named ” Certkiller .rtf” using Ownership and Permissions section of the file\\’s Info window? Choose all that apply. A. Delete B. Read only C. Write only D. No access E. Execute only F. Read and Write Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 10 Which two directories will NOT exist by default on which you have installed Mac OS X v10.3 and added a single user named “Certkiller”? (Choose two.) A. /Fonts B. /Applications C. /Library/Preferences D. /System/Library/Caches E. /Users/Certkiller/Documents F. /Users/Certkiller/Library/Caches G. /Users/Shared/Library/Caches Correct Answer: AG
QUESTION 11 When you delete a user named “Certkiller” using the graphical user interface in Mac OS X v10.3, the contents of Certkiller\\’s home folder can be ______________. (Choose all that apply.) A. Deleted immediately B. Moved to a folder named “Certkiller Deleted” C. Converted to a .sit file and moved to the Deleted Users folder. D. Converted to a .zip file and moved to the Deleted Users folder. E. Converted to a .dmg file and moved to the Deletes Users folder. Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12 To allow other Mac OS X v10.3 users on the network to access a USB printer connected to your Macintosh, you can __________. A. Start Print Service in Mac OS X server. B. Enable Network Printing in Print Setup Utility C. Add a network print queue in Print Setup Utility. D. Enable AppleTalk in the Network pane of System Preferences. E. Select the option to Share my printers with other computers in the Print and Fax pane of System Preferences. Correct Answer: E
Apple ACHDS 9L0-400 Exam Video
Pass4itsure Offers 100% Real and Valid IT Exam Dumps, 100% Same with the Real Exam.
The following is the customer’s evaluation:
Rainer
United States
valid just passed my exam with this dump. Some answers are incorrect. but so far so good. thanks
Igor
Mexico
Still valid, passed 976!
zero
South Korea
I have passed the exam with good scores, thanks very much.
Petter
Russian Federation
Valid. All questions from the exam, few questions have the different order. So please be careful in the exam,
Zia
United States
Answers are correct. Questions are valid.Recommend strongly.
Roger
United States
As for me , this dump is very useful and convenient, I can find my disadvantages easily and know how to correct them. I also can learn new skills and knowledge by using this dump. I think you also can do it. I have test it so you can trust on it.
Popular Apple exams | Pass4itsure
9L0-004 :Apple Desktop Service Exam
82 Q&As Updated: Jun 16, 2020
9L0-005: Apple Desktop Service Certification Exam
87 Q&As Updated: Jun 16, 2020
9L0-006: Apple Macintosh Service Exam
97 Q&As Updated: Jun 16, 2020
9L0-007: Macintosh Service Certification Exam
95 Q&As Updated: Jun 13, 2020
9L0-008: Macintosh Service Certification Exam
103 Q&As Updated: Jun 15, 2020
Pass4itsure discount code 2020
Considering the importance of the Apple 9L0-400 certification exam, we reduced the dumps price of Apple 9L0-400 to a discount of 12%. The discount has been applied to the Apple 9L0-400 exam product, bringing maximum convenience and help to customers.
The Apple 9L0-400 dumps [2020] – verified 9L0-400 exam pdf questions from https://www.pass4itsure.com/9l0-400.htmlTakecertify blog shares the latest learning materials for free: Apple 9L0-400 Dumps | Apple 9L0-400 Video | Apple 9L0-400 Practice Questions
What do I need to prepare to pass the Adobe AD0-E301 exam? Dumps? Video? Practice questions? Takecertify offers everything you need to prepare & pass the Adobe AD0-E301 exam. Full attention is the only thing you need to prepare. https://www.pass4itsure.com/ad0-e301.html provides 100% valid and accurate Adobe AD0-E301 dumps. Help you pass the Adobe AD0-E301 exam.
Adobe Campaign AD0-E301 Full Certification Dumps
Study, prepare, and pass your Adobe AD0-E301 exam with dumps
100% Pass Your Adobe AD0-E301 with Latest Actual Exam Questions & Answers
QUESTION 1 When should you create a content fragment? A. When dynamic content will be referenced in multiple emails B. When dynamic content will be referenced in only one email C. When fixed content will be referenced in only one email D. When reusable content will be referenced in multiple emails Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A customer is sending an email delivery that needs to offer a 30% discount to their premium profiles, and a 20% discount to the remaining profiles of the targeted audience. How would you best approach this requirement? A. Create a visibility condition that displays the 30% discount to premium profiles only. B. Create one delivery targeting premium profiles and one delivery targeting non-premium profiles. C. Create dynamic content with one condition that displays the 30% discount to premium profiles. D. Create a visibility condition that displays the 20% discount to non-premium profiles only. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Every week, new data files are uploaded to the Adobe hosted SFTP server. What is the maximum time limit that files remain on the SFTP server? A. 30 days B. 15 days C. 20 days D. 25 days Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You want to create a link between a custom resource “Office Location” and the Profile resource. Profiles and “Office Location” each contain a six-character alphanumeric code (location ID) which uniquely define the office location. How can you create this link? A. On a custom profile resource, click “Add automatic ID field” and name it location ID and use it to define a link. B. On a custom profile resource, define the location ID field as an “Identification keys” field. C. Create a link in “Office Location”, use a specific join condition, and select the location ID fields of Profiles and “Office Location”. D. Use the primary key in both tables to define the link. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 For what two types of data is it best practice to export using the package export process? Choose two. A. Profile B. Content Templates C. Logs D. Business Data E. Workflows Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6 Since the addition of a new geographic location to an existing Campaign instance, several users have reported they can no longer log in to Campaign. What is the most likely cause of this issue? A. The users belong to parallel units which are or the same level in the hierarchy. B. Adding a new geographic location automatically updates access rights for existing users. C. The user\\’s access rights cache in the Admin Console must be refreshed for the changes to appear. D. Users will not be able to connect as they cannot belong to more than one geographical unit at a time. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 What three steps are needed to set up the double opt-in process? Choose three. A. Create a new recurring delivery. B. Set blacklist field of the Profile to false on double opt-in confirmation. C. Create a new transactional message. D. Create a confirmation landing page based on the Blacklist template or the Subscription template. E. Set blacklist field of the Profile to true on double opt-in confirmation. F. Create a confirmation landing page based on the Profile acquisition template or the Subscription template Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 8 You want to export a file containing the Label value for all created emails. Which out-of-the-box resource do you need to query in the Export Activity? A. Campaign B. Messages C. Delivery D. Logs Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 A customer regularly uses a Query on the eventSubscriptions resource to select all profiles that are subscribed to an event. What is the best practice for creating this Query? A. Create a Query on the eventSubscriptions resource and select the email field from the profile link in the explorer view. B. Create a filter under Administration > Development > Predefined filters and then select the eventSubscriptions resource. Create a filter containing two parameters: email and event and use it in the Query. C. Create a Query on the eventSubscriptions resource and select the email and event fields from this resource in the Shortcuts menu. D. Create a new filter definition for the eventSubscriptions resource containing two parameters: email and event and use this filter in the Query. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Review the following error message: The schema for profiles specified in the transition (\\’headxusEmployee\\’) is not compatible with the schema defined in the delivery template {\\’nmsxecipient\\’). They should be identical. What is causing this error? A. There is no reconciliation with profiles. B. There is no audience set in the delivery. C. The schema in the delivery template is incorrect. D. The transition is not linked to the delivery. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which configuration would allow a client to create a user that can access their French (FR) business unit but not allow them access to German (DE) campaigns: A. 1. Create new Security Groups named “FR Operators” and “DE Operators” 2. Map all FR marketing activities to “FR Operators” Security Group 3. Map the user to “FR Operators” group B. 1. Create new Org Units named “FR” and “DE” 2. Create new Security Groups named “FR Operators” and “DE Operators” 3. Map Security groups to “FR” and “DE” Org Units, respectively 4. Map all FR marketing activities to “FR” Org Unit 5. Map the user to “FR Operators” group C. 1. Create a new Org Unit named “EU” 2. Create new Security Groups named “FR Operators” and “DE Operators” 3. Map Security groups to “EU” Org Unit 4. Map all marketing activities to “EU” Org Unit 5. Map the user to “FR Operators” group D. 1. Create new Org Units named “FR” and “DE” 2. Map all FR. marketing activities to “FR” Org Unit 3. Map the user to the “FR” Org Unit Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 What are the two steps a developer must do to set up a key-based authentication in order to transfer files to the Adobehosted SFTP? Choose two. A. Request Adobe support to whitelist IP addresses. B. Upload a private key in the external account configuration. C. Upload a public key in the external account configuration. D. Provide the public key to Adobe support to have it uploaded to the SFTP server. E. Provide the private key to Adobe support to have it uploaded to the SFTP server. Correct Answer: AD
Adobe AD0-E301 Exam Video
Pass4itsure Offers 100% Real and Valid IT Exam Dumps, 100% Same with the Real Exam.
The following is the customer’s evaluation:
Rainer
United States
valid just passed my exam with this dump. Some answers are incorrect. but so far so good. thanks
Igor
Mexico
Still valid, passed 976!
zero
South Korea
I have passed the exam with good scores, thanks very much.
Petter
Russian Federation
Valid. All questions from the exam, few questions have the different order. So please be careful in the exam,
Zia
United States
Answers are correct. Questions are valid.Recommend strongly.
Roger
United States
As for me , this dump is very useful and convenient, I can find my disadvantages easily and know how to correct them. I also can learn new skills and knowledge by using this dump. I think you also can do it. I have test it so you can trust on it.
Considering the importance of the Adobe Campaign AD0-E301 certification exam, we reduced the dumps price of AD0-E301 to a discount of 12%. The discount has been applied to the AD0-E301 exam product, bringing maximum convenience and help to customers.
The Adobe AD0-E301 dumps [2020] – verified AD0-E301 exam pdf questions from https://www.pass4itsure.com/ad0-e301.html This blog shares the latest learning materials for free: Adobe AD0-E301 Dumps | Adobe AD0-E301 Video | Adobe AD0-E301 Practice Questions
Do you want to get a new Microsoft AZ-300 exam dumps to get the best score? See here: https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-300.html Free Microsoft AZ-300 exam dumps,study tips for success.
Get Updated Microsoft AZ-300 Exam Dumps — Study Tips For Success
Takecertify provides you with preparation materials that are specially designed for all those who are working hard and preparing for Microsoft certification. Takecertify preparation materials include real Microsoft AZ-300 dumps to provide our customers with the best understanding Level. The best thing about this preparation material is that it provides a clear explanation of the Microsoft AZ-300 exam concept and provides the correct exam guide for all customers.
Why We Choose Pass4itsure For Microsoft AZ-300 Exam Dumps and Get Best Result?
Using Pass4itsure to prepare materials not only enhances the practical skills of customers, but also helps them pass the Microsoft AZ-300 certification exam and obtain certification easily and smoothly from the first attempt.
Technical experts have put a lot of effort into the Microsoft AZ-300 dump pdf, they combined their respective expertise and put forward excellent preparation materials. This is why the effectiveness of our Pass4itsure company in preparing materials will not be challenged or defeated.
Microsoft AZ-300 Exam Information
Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translate business requirements into secure, scalable, and reliable solutions.
You can get the Microsoft AZ-300 exam dump in two simple formats: (download and prepare):
The Microsoft AZ-300 exam dumps come in the following two formats:
Dumps PDF: Suitable for all smart devices. Portable and printable, you can practice Microsoft exam dumps anytime, anywhere.
Software: Practice software.Customers can customize practice software simulation exams by time or question type.
AZ-300 Dumps Questions | Video learning
Microsoft AZ-300 Dumps Questions With 100% Money-Back Guarantee:
Pass4itsure guarantees all your refunds. 100% of all your money will be refunded. (Conditions apply.)
Try it now for free.
QUESTION 1 SIMULATION Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address bar.
When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button. Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you complete the rest of the exam. Overview The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design. Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided. Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to the lab. To start the lab You may start the lab by clicking the Next button. You plan to allow connections between the VNET01-USEA2 and VNET01-USWE2 virtual networks. You need to ensure that virtual machines can communicate across both virtual networks by using their private IP address. The solution must NOT require any virtual network gateways. What should you do from the Azure portal? Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 Which blade should you instruct the finance department auditors to use? A. Partner information B. Cost analysis C. Resource providers D. Invoices Correct Answer: D You can opt in and configure additional recipients to receive your Azure invoice in an email. This feature may not be available for certain subscriptions such as support offers, Enterprise Agreements, or Azure in Open.1. Select your subscription from the Subscriptions page. Opt-in for each subscription you own. Click Invoices then Email my invoice.
QUESTION 3 You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual machines. You need to ensure that you receive an email message when any virtual machines are powered off, restarted, or deallocated. What is the minimum number of rules and action groups that you require? A. three rules and three action groups B. one rule and one action group C. three rules and one action group D. one rule and three action groups Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains the resources in the following table.
In Azure, you create a private DNS zone named adatum.com. You set the registration virtual network to VNet2. The adatum.com zone is configured is shown in the following exhibit.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: No Azure DNS provides automatic registration of virtual machines from a single virtual network that\\’s linked to a private zone as a registration virtual network. VM5 does not belong to the registration virtual network though. Box 2: No Forward DNS resolution is supported across virtual networks that are linked to the private zone as resolution virtual networks. VM5 does belong to a resolution virtual network. Box 3: Yes VM6 belongs to registration virtual network, and an A (Host) record exists for VM9 in the DNS zone. By default, registration virtual networks also act as resolution virtual networks, in the sense that DNS resolution against the zone works from any of the virtual machines within the registration virtual network. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/private-dns-overview
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company backs up data to on-premises servers at their main facility. The company currently has 30 TB of archived data that infrequently used. The facility has download speeds of 100 Mbps and upload speeds of 20 Mbps. You need to securely transfer all backups to Azure Blob Storage for long-term archival. All backup data must be sent within seven days. Solution: Create a file share in Azure Files. Mount the file share to the server and upload the files to the file share. Transfer the files to Azure Blob Storage. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 You have a web app named WebApp1 that uses an Azure App Service plan named Plan1. Plan1 uses the D1 pricing tier and has an instance count of 1. You need to ensure that all connections to WebApp1 use HTTPS. What should you do first? A. Scale up Plan1. B. Modify the connection strings for WebApp1. C. Scale out Plan1. D. Disable anonymous access to WebApp1. Correct Answer: A The D1 (Shared) pricing tier does not support HTTPS.
QUESTION 7 You have a task that includes a WebJob that should run continuously. The WebJob Log exhibit shows the text that is displayed when the WebJob runs. (Click the WebJob Log tab.)
The WebJob is configured as shown in the WebJob Configuration exhibit. (Click the WebJob Configuration tab.)
The WebJob is not functioning as expected. The WebJob Code exhibit has a comment that shows where code should be added. (Click the WebJob Code tab.) You need to identify any issues with the WebJob. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains resources that were deployed by using templates. You need to view the date and time when the resources were created in RG1. Solution: From the Subscription blade, you select the subscription, and then click Resource providers. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 SIMULATION Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address bar.
When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button. Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you complete the rest of the exam. Overview The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design. Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided. Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to the lab. To start the lab You may start the lab by clicking the Next button. You need to allow RDP connections over TCP port 3389 to VM1 from the Internet. The solutions must prevent connections from the Internet over all other TCP ports. What should you do from the Azure portal? Correct Answer: See solution below. Step 1: Create a new network security group Step 2: Select your new network security group.
Step 3: Select Inbound security rules. Under Add inbound security rule, enter the following Destination: Select Network security group, and then select the security group you created previously. Destination port ranges: 3389 Protocol: Select TCP
QUESTION 10 SIMULATION Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address bar.
When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button. Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you complete the rest of the exam. Overview The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design. Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided. Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to the lab. To start the lab You may start the lab by clicking the Next button. You need to create a function app named corp8548987n1 that supports sticky sessions. The solution must minimize the Azure-related costs of the App Service plan. What should you do from the Azure portal? Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You need to meet the vendor notification requirement. Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud-based email service. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto-configure-notifications
QUESTION 12 You are designing an Azure solution. The solution must meet the following requirements: Distribute traffic to different pools of dedicated virtual machines (VMs) based on rules Provide SSL offloading capabilities You need to recommend a solution to distribute network traffic. Which technology should you recommend? A. server-level firewall rules B. Azure Application Gateway C. Azure Traffic Manager D. Azure Load Balancer Correct Answer: B If you require “SSL offloading”, application layer treatment, or wish to delegate certificate management to Azure, you should use Azure\\’s layer 7 load balancer Application Gateway instead of the Load Balanacer. Incorrect Answers: D: Because Load Balancer is agnostic to the TCP payload and TLS offload (“SSL”) is not provided. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/overview
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Adatum and an Azure Subscription named Subscription1. Adatum contains a group named Developers. Subscription1 contains a resource group named Dev. You need to provide the Developers group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group. Solution: On Dev, you assign the Contributor role to the Developers group. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A The Contributor role lets you manage everything except access to resources. It allows you to create and manage resources of all types, including creating Azure logic apps. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles#contributor
Most Accurate Microsoft AZ-300 Exam Dumps: Pass4itsure preparation materials are your best choice for successfully passing the Microsoft AZ-300 certification exam. Pass4itsure preparation materials will provide you with the latest tips and tricks to effectively deal with all frequently encountered problems during the AZ-300 exam. If you want to pass the AZ-300 exam, you must use our preparation materials.
