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Oracle Cloud 1Z0-931 Exam PDF Dumps

Oracle 1Z0-931 Exam

Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Cloud
Exam Code: 1Z0-931
Exam Name: Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2019 Specialist

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Oracle 1Z0-931 Exam Video Study

Oracle Cloud 1Z0-931 Exam Questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true regarding how Autonomous Database provides data security? (Choose three.)
A. Data is encrypted at rest using transparent data encryption.
B. Network connections from clients to Autonomous Database are encrypted using the client credentials wallet.
C. Users are given OS logons or SYSDBA privileges to prevent phishing attacks.
D. Oracle automatically applies security updates to ensure data is not vulnerable to known attack vectors.
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://www.oracle.com/database/technologies/datawarehouse-bigdata/adb-faqs.html


QUESTION 2
Once you have a connection to the Autonomous Data Warehouse, how do you import tables into the Oracle Analytics
Cloud (OAC)?
A. Replicate the table using Golden Gate
B. Create a Data Set
C. Load data using Data Pump
D. Import Table
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which is NOT required to connect to Autonomous Database from SQL developer?
A. Database name
B. Service name
C. Wallet file
D. Username and password
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Given the steps:
1.
Create Oracle Machine Learning User
2.
Create projects
3.
Create workspaces
4.
Create Notebooks
5.
Run SQL Scripts
Which two steps are out of order when working with Oracle Machine learning? (Choose two.)
A. Create Oracle Machine Learning User
B. Create workspaces
C. Create Notebooks
D. Run SQL Scripts
E. Create projects
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 5
The 3rd party application that your customer wants to migrate to Autonomous Database (ADB) has some specific
demands like tablespace names, usernames, and init.ora parameters. The decision was made to adhere to the
suggested migration method using an instant client and the data pump version that was suggested (and came with it).
Which statement is true about the migration of the application\\’s database success?
A. The migration can be technically a success but the 3-rd party vendor needs to support the result.
B. The suggested data pump version will create an alias for non-standard tablespace names so the migration is
successful.
C. The tablespace names will result in a blocking error during data pump import because of ADB limitations.
D. The migration can be a success, both technically and functional due to data pump enhancements.
Correct Answer: B

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Oracle Cloud 1Z0-997 Exam PDF Dumps

Oracle 1Z0-997 Exam

Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Cloud
Exam Code: 1Z0-997
Exam Name: Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2019 Architect Professional

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Oracle 1Z0-997 Exam Video Study

Oracle Cloud 1Z0-997 Exam Questions 1-13

QUESTION 1
You have deployed a web application targeting a global audience across multiple Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)
regions.
You decide to use Traffic Management Geo-Location based Steering Policy to serve web requests to users from the
region closest to the user. Within each region, you have deployed a public load balancer with 4 servers in a backend
set.
During a DR test disable all web servers in one of the regions however, traffic Management does not automatically
direct all users to the other region.
Which two are possible causes?
A. You did not set up a Route Table associated with load Balancer\\’s subnet
B. You did not set up an HTTP Health Check associated with Load Balancer public IP in the disabled region.
C. Rather than using Geo-Location based Steering Policy, you should use Failover Policy Type to serve traffic.
D. One of the two working web servers In the other region did not pass Its HTTP health check
E. You did not correctly set up the Load Balancer HTTP health check policy associated with the backend set
Correct Answer: BE
Managing Traffic Management GEOLOCATION Steering Policies Geolocation steering policies distribute DNS traffic to
different endpoints based on the location of the end-user. Customers can define geographic regions composed of
originating continent, countries, or states/provinces (North America) and define a separate endpoint or set of endpoints
for each region. The Health Checks service allows you to monitor the health of IP addresses and hostnames, as
measured from geographic vantage points of your choosing, using HTTP and ping probes. After configuring a health
check, you can view the monitor\\’s results. The results include the location from which the host was monitored, the
availability of the endpoint, and the date and time the test was performed. Also, you can Combine Managing Traffic
Management GEOLOCATION Steering Policies with Oracle Health Checks to failover from one region to another The
Load Balancing service provides health status indicators that use your health check policies to report on the general
health of your load balancers and their components. if you misconfigure the health check Protocol between the Load
balancer and backend set that can lead to not get an accurate response as the example below
If you run a TCP-level health check against an HTTP service, you might not get an accurate response. The TCP
handshake can succeed and indicate that the service is up even when the HTTP service is ly configured or having other
issues. Although the health check appears good customers might experience transaction failures.


QUESTION 2
A customer has a Virtual Machine instance running in their Oracle Cloud Infrastructure tenancy. They realized that they
wrongly picked a smaller shape for their compute instance. They are reaching out to you to help them fix the issue.
Which of the below options is best recommended to suggest to the customer?
A. Delete the running instance and spin up a new instance with the desired shape.
B. Change the shape of the instance without reboot but stop all the applications running on the instance beforehand to prevent
data corruption.
C. Change the shape of the virtual machine instance using the Change Shape feature available in the console.
D. OCI doesn\\’t allow such an operation.
Correct Answer: C
You can change the shape of a virtual machine (VM) instance without having to rebuild your instances or redeploy your
applications. This lets you scale up your Compute resources for increased performance, or scale down to reduce cost.
When you change the shape of an instance, you select a different processor, a number of cores, amount of memory,
network bandwidth, and maximum number of VNICs for the instance. The instance\\’s public and private IP addresses,
volume attachments, and VNIC attachments remain the same.


QUESTION 3
You are helping a customer troubleshoot a problem. The customer has several Oracle Linux servers in
Based on cost considerations, which option will fix this Issue?
A. Create a Public Load Balancer In front of the servers and add the servers to the Backend Set of the Public Load
Balancer.
B. Create another Internet Gateway and configure it as a route target for the private subnet.
C. Implement a NAT instance In the public subnet of the VCN and configure the NAT instance as the route target for the
private subnet.
D. Create a NAT gateway in the VCN and configure the NAT gateway as the route target for the private subnet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
As a part of the migration exercise for an existing on-premises application to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCT), yon ore
required to transfer a 7 TB file to OCI Object Storage. You have decided to upload the functionality of Object Storage.
Which two statements are true?
A. Active multipart upload can be checked by listing all parts that have been uploaded, however, It Is not possible to list
information for individual object part in an active multipart upload
B. It is possible to spill this file into multiple parts using the APIs provided by Object Storage.
C. It is possible to split this file into multiple parts using the clone tool provided by Object Storage.
D. After initiating a multipart upload by making a CreateMultlPartUpload RESI API Call, the upload remains active until
you explicitly commit it or abort.
E. Contiguous numbers need to be assigned for each part so that Object Storage constructs the object by ordering, part
numbers in ascending order
Correct Answer: AD
You can check on an active multipart upload by listing all parts that have been uploaded. (You cannot list information for
an individual object part in an active multipart upload.) After you finish creating object parts, initiate a multipart upload by making a CreateMultipartUpload REST API call. Provide the object name and any object metadata. Object Storage
responds with a unique upload ID that you must include in any requests related to this multipart upload. Object Storage
also marks the upload as active. The upload remains active until you explicitly commit it or abort it.


QUESTION 5
An automobile company wants to deploy their CRM application for Oracle Database on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure
(OC1) DB Systems for one of the major clients. In compliance with the Business Continuity Program of the client, they need
to provide a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 24 hours and a Recovery time objective (RTO) of 24 hours and
Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of 1 hour. The CRM application should be an available oven in my event that entire on
The region is down. Which approach Is the most suitable and cost-effective configuration for this scenario?
A. Deploy a 1 node VM Oracle database in one region and replicate the database to a 1 node VM Oracle database in
another region using a manual setup and configuration of Oracle Data Guard.
B. Deploy a 2 node Virtual Machine (VM) Oracle RAC database in one region and replicate the database to a 2 node
VM Oracle RAC database in another region using a manual setup and
C. Deploy a 1 node VM Oracle database in one region. Manual Configure a Recovery Manager (RMAN) database
backup schedule to take hourly database backups. Asynchronously copy the database backups to object storage in
another OCI region, If the primary OCI region is unavailable launch a new 1 new VM Database in the other OCI region
to restore the production database from the backup.
D. Deploy an Autonomous Transaction Processing (Serverless) database in one region and replicate it to an
Autonomous Transaction Processing (Serverless) database in another region Oracle GoldenGate.
Correct Answer: A
You can configure the Autonomous Database instance as a target database for Oracle GoldenGate. But You can\\’t set
up Oracle Autonomous Database as a source database for Oracle GoldenGate. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 24
hours and Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of 1 hour
-To provision new VM and restore the production database from the backup on object storage, will exceed the RTO 1
hour
– You can create the standby DB system in a different availability domain from the primary DB system for availability and
disaster recovery purposes. With Data Guard and switchover/failover can meet RTO 1 hour.
-RAC Database is not required in this solution. Standalone will be most suitable and cost-effective

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Oracle Cloud 1z0-1050 Exam PDF Dumps

Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Cloud
Exam Code: 1Z0-1050
Exam Name: Oracle Payroll Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials

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Oracle 1Z0-1050 Exam Video Study

Oracle Cloud 1Z0-1050 Exam Questions 1-13

QUESTION 1
Your customer has the finance system in a third party system and you have to send the payroll costing entries to a third
party system. Which two options can be used to extract the data from the Cloud Payroll system?
A. You cannot extract the costing results from cloud payroll to send it to a third-party financial system.
B. You can use the OTBI
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 2
You are creating a car allowance element. The rules for this allowance need to reference the salary balance. How can
Do you meet this requirement?
A. Enter the salary balance value as an input value on the car allowance element.
B. Associate the salary balance to a calculation card and reference the calculation card in the allowance element
formula.
C. Create a balanced feed to feed the salary balance to the car allowance element.
D. Reference the database item and appropriate dimension for the salary balance in the allowance element formula.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which two statements regarding the relationship between legal entities, legal employers, and payroll statutory units
(PSU) are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A legal employer can be associated with multiple PSUs
B. A legal entity can be both a legal employer and a PSU
C. Legal entities responsible for paying workers
D. PSUs are legal entities responsible for payroll tax and social insurance reporting
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/financials/r13-update17d/faigl/legal-entities.html#FAIGL1453110

QUESTION 4
Which option represents the costing hierarchy necessary to build a cost account when the element costing is defined
with costing type as “Cost”?
A. Element Eligibility, Payroll, Department, Job or Position, Person, Element Entry
B. Payroll, Element Eligibility, Department, Job, Position, Person Person Element, Element Entry
C. Payroll, Department, Job or Position, Element Eligibility, Person, Element Entry
D. Payroll, Person Element Entry, Department, Job or Position, Person, Element Eligibility
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
A customer\\’s organization has a grade structure with four grades –C1, C2, C3, and C4. You have a car allowance
element, which is at Assignment level, for which only the employees with grade C3 and C4 are eligible. You should not
be able to create an element entry for employees with grades C1 and C2.
How do you define the element eligibility for the Car Allowance element?
A. Define the element eligibility as an Open Eligibility and create an element entry only for employees with grades C3
and C4.
B. Define multiple-element eligibilities using grade C1, C2, C3, and C4 but create an element entry only for employees
with grades C3 and C4.
C. Define multiple-element eligibilities using grade C3 and C4 only.
D. You cannot meet the requirement as you cannot create element eligibility using grade as the eligibility criteria.
Correct Answer: A

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Oracle Cloud 1Z0-1066 Exam PDF Dumps

Oracle 1Z0-1066 Exam

Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Cloud
Exam Code: 1Z0-1066
Exam Name: Oracle Planning and Collaboration Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials

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Oracle 1Z0-1066 Exam Video Study

Oracle Cloud 1Z0-1066 Exam Questions 1-13

QUESTION 1
Demand is high leading up to the Christmas holiday every year between Dec 20 and Dec 24 and not on Christmas day
(Dec 25). Your customer has two demand plans. Describe the steps to model Christmas causal factor in both demand
plans.
A. Open a demand plan and add a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Create a table displaying the causal
factor measure and relevant time period and modify as required. Causal factor changes in this demand plan will reflect
in the 2nd demand plan also.
B. Open a demand plan and add a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Create a table displaying the causal
factor measure and relevant time period and modify as required. Causal factor changes are plan specific, so repeat the
steps in the 2nd demand plan.
C. Use FBDI to create a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Place value of 1 from Dec 20 to Dec 34. Causal
factor upload to one demand plan will reflect in the 2nd demand plan also.
D. Use FBDI to create a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Place value of 1 from Dec 20 to Dec 24. Causal
factor changes are plan specific, so repeat the steps in the 2nd demand plan.
E. Open a demand plan and edit Christmas casual factor measure. Place value of one from Dec 20 to Dec 24 and zero
for non-impacted days including Dec 25. Causal factor changes in this demand plan will reflect in the 2nd demand plan
also.
F. Open a demand plan and edit Christmas casual factor measure. Place value of one from Dec 20 to Dec 24 and zero
for non-impacted days including Dec 25. Causal factor changes are plan specific, so repeat the steps in the 2nd
demand plan.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
What is one method of associating a Safety Stock Quantity value to an item?
A. Upload the value using File Based Data Import (FBDI)
B. Enter your value in the Safety Stock Quantity column in the Items page.
C. Run the Safety Stock Quantity Update Process.
D. Enter your value in the Safety Stock Quantity Override column in the Items page.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your client has a requirement to restrict Supply Plan data access. Identify three Data Access Set detail entities that can be used to restrict plan data access. (Choose three.)
A. Supplier
B. Item
C. Transaction Type
D. Customer
E. Material Planner
F. Demand Class
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 4
In order for Supply and Demand Plans to run successfully, which three Configure Planning Analytic tasks must be
completed? (Choose three.)
A. Set up Levels and Attributes
B. Set up Measure Catalogs
C. Run the Configure Dimension Catalog process
D. Set up Default Catalogs
E. Set up Dimension Catalogs
F. Set up Hierarchy Attributes
Correct Answer: ABE


QUESTION 5
You have run a plan for your organization and there were sales orders that have been set up for drop shipment that you
cannot see in the plan.
Which two options explain why the sales orders cannot be seen in the plan? (Choose two.)
A. Drop Ship Item Validation Org has not been set up.
B. Drop Ship Demand Class has not be set up.
C. Supplier not configured in Manage Planning Source Systems
D. Include drop ship demands and supplies flag has not been checked on your plan options.
E. Planning Profile \\’Enable Planning for Drop Shipments\\’ has not been set to \\’Yes\\’.
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
The MAIN reason for requiring that all computer clocks across an organization be synchronized is to:
A. prevent omission or duplication of transactions.
B. ensure smooth data transition from client machines to servers.
C. ensure that e-mail messages have accurate time stamps.
D. support the incident investigation process.
Correct Answer: D
During an investigation of incidents, audit logs are used as evidence, and the time stamp information in them is useful. If
the clocks are not synchronized, investigations will be more difficult because a time line of events might not be easily
established. Time-stamping a transaction has nothing to do with the update itself. Therefore, the possibility of omission
or duplication of transactions does not exist. Data transfer has nothing to do with the time stamp. While the time stamp
on an e-mail may not be accurate, this is not a significant issue.


QUESTION 2
A maturity model can be used to aid the implementation of IT governance by identifying:
A. critical success factors
B. performance drivers
C. improvement opportunities
D. accountabilities
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which of the following step of PDCA request a corrective actions on significant differences between the actual versus
the planned result?
A. Plan
B. Do
C. Check
D. Act
Correct Answer: D
Act – Request corrective actions on significant differences between actual and planned results. Analyze the differences
to determine their root causes. Determine where to apply changes that will include improvement of the process or product.
When a pass through these four steps does not result in the need to improve, the scope to which PDCA is applied may
be refined to plan and improve with more detail in the next iteration of the cycle, or attention needs to be placed in a
different stage of the process.
For your exam you should know the information below:
PDCA (plan?o?heck?ct or plan?o?heck?djust) is an iterative four-step management method used in business for the
control and continuous improvement of processes and products. It is also known as the Deming circle/cycle/wheel,
Stewart cycle, control circle/cycle, or plan?o?tudy?ct (PDSA). Another version of this PDCA cycle is OPDCA. The added
“O” stands for observation or as some versions say “Grasp the current condition.” The steps in each successive
PDCA cycle are:

takecertify CISA exam questions-q3

“CHECK” and “ACT” steps.
CHECK – Study the actual results (measured and collected in “DO” above) and compare against the expected results
(targets or goals from the “PLAN”) to ascertain any differences
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 page number 107


QUESTION 4
Which of the following access control situations represents the MOST serious control weakness?
A. Computer operators have access to system level flowcharts.
B. Programmers have access to development hardware.
C. End users have access to program development tools.
D. System developers have access to production data.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which of the following penetration tests would MOST effectively evaluate incident handling and response capabilities of
an organization?
A. Targeted testing
B. External testing
C. internal testing
D. Double-blind testing
Correct Answer: D
In a double-blind test, the administrator and security staff are not aware of the test, which will result in an assessment of
the incident handling and response capability in an organization. In targeted, external, and internal testing, the system
administrator and security staff are aware of the tests since they are informed before the start of the tests.

QUESTION 6
An organization has implemented a disaster recovery plan. Which of the following steps should be carried out next?
A. Obtain senior management sponsorship.
B. Identify business needs.
C. Conduct a paper test.
D. Perform a system restore test.
Correct Answer: C
A best practice would be to conduct a paper test. Senior management sponsorship and business needs identification
should have been obtained prior to implementing the plan. A paper test should be conducted first, followed by system or
full testing.


QUESTION 7
An IS auditor is reviewing the physical security measures of an organization. Regarding the access card system, the IS
auditor should be MOST concerned that:
A. nonpersonalized access cards are given to the cleaning staff, who use a sign-in sheet but show no proof of identity.
B. access cards are not labeled with the organization\\’s name and address to facilitate easy return of a lost card.
C. card issuance and rights administration for the cards are done by different departments, causing unnecessary lead
time for new cards.
D. the computer system used for programming the cards can only be replaced after three weeks in the event of a
system failure.
Correct Answer: A
Physical security is meant to control who is entering a secured area, so identification of all individuals is of utmost
importance. It is not adequate to trust unknown external people by allowing them to write down their alleged name
without proof, e.g., identity card, driver\\’s license. Choice B is not a concern because if the name and address of the
organization was written on the card, a malicious finder could use the card to enter the organization\\’s premises.
Separating card issuance from technical rights management is a method to ensure a proper segregation of duties so
that no single person can produce a functioning card for a restricted area within the organization\\’s premises. Choices B
and C are good practices, not concerns. Choice D may be a concern, but not as important since a system failure of the
card programming device would normally not mean that the readers do not function anymore. It simply means that no
new cards can be issued, so this option is minor compared to the threat of improper identification.

QUESTION 8
To restore service at a large processing facility after a disaster, which of the following tasks should be performed
FIRST?
A. Launch the emergency action team.
B. Inform insurance company agents.
C. Contact equipment vendors.
D. Activate the reciprocal agreement.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Back Orifice is an example of:
A. a virus.
B. a legitimate remote control software.
C. a backdoor that takes the form of an installed program.
D. an eavesdropper.
E. None of the choices.
Correct Answer: C
“A backdoor may take the form of an installed program (e.g., Back Orifice) or could be in the form of an existing
“”legitimate”” program, or executable file. A specific form of backdoors are rootkits, which replaces system binaries
and/or hooks into the function calls of the operating system to hide the presence of other programs, users, services and
open ports.”

QUESTION 10
Which of the following methods of encryption has been proven to be almost unbreakable when correctly used?
A. key pair
B. Oakley
C. certificate
D. 3-DES
E. one-time pad
F. None of the choices.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation: It\\’s possible to protect messages in transit by means of cryptography. One method of encryption – the onetime pad –has been proven to be unbreakable when correctly used. This method uses a matching pair of key- codes,
securely distributed, which are used once-and-only-once to encode and decode a single message. Note that this
method is difficult to use securely, and is highly inconvenient as well.


QUESTION 11
Which of the following BEST characterizes a mantrap or deadman door, which is used as a deterrent control for the
vulnerability of piggybacking?
A. A monitored double-doorway entry system
B. A monitored turnstile entry system
C. A monitored doorway entry system
D. A one-way door that does not allow exit after entry
Correct Answer: A
A monitored double-doorway entry system, also referred to as a mantrap or deadman door, is used a deterrent control
for the vulnerability of piggybacking.


QUESTION 12
Ensuring that security and control policies support business and IT objectives is a primary objective of:
A. An IT security policies audit
B. A processing audit
C. A software audit
D. A vulnerability assessment
Correct Answer: A
Ensuring that security and control policies support business and IT objectives is a primary objective of an IT security
policies audit.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following statement correctly describes the difference between symmetric key encryption and asymmetric
key encryption?
A. In symmetric key encryption the same key is used for encryption and decryption where as asymmetric key uses
private key for encryption and decryption
B. In symmetric key encryption the public key is used for encryption and the symmetric key for decryption. Where as in
asymmetric key encryption the public key is used for encryption and private key is used for decryption
C. In symmetric key encryption the same key is used for encryption and decryption where as in asymmetric key
encryption the public key is used for encryption and private key is used for decryption.
D. Both uses private key for encryption and the decryption process can be done using public key
Correct Answer: C
There are two basic techniques for encrypting information: symmetric encryption (also called secret key encryption) and
asymmetric encryption (also called public key encryption.)
Symmetric Encryption Symmetric encryption is the oldest and best-known technique. A secret key, which can be a
number, a word, or just a string of random letters, is applied to the text of a message to change the content in a
particular way. This might be as simple as shifting each letter by a number of places in the alphabet. As long as both
sender and recipient know the secret key, they can encrypt and decrypt all messages that use this key.
Few examples of symmetric key algorithms are DES, AES, Blowfish, etc
Asymmetric Encryption The problem with secret keys is exchanging them over the Internet or a large network while preventing them from falling into the wrong hands. Anyone who knows the secret key can decrypt the message. One
answer is the usage of asymmetric encryption, in which there are two related keys, usually called a key pair. The public
key is made freely available to anyone who might want to send you a message. The second key, called the private key
is kept secret, so that only you know it.
Any message (text, binary files, or documents) that are encrypted using the public key can only be decrypted by the
matching private key. Any message that is encrypted by using the private key can only be decrypted by using the
matching public key.
This means that you do not have to worry about passing public keys over the Internet (the keys are supposed to be
public).A problem with asymmetric encryption, however, is that it is slower than symmetric encryption. It requires far
more processing power to both encrypt and decrypt the content of the message.
Few examples of asymmetric key algorithms are RSA, Elliptic key Cryptography (ECC), El Gamal, Differ-Hellman, etc
The following were incorrect answers:
The other options don\\’t describe correctly the difference between symmetric key and asymmetric key encryption.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 348 and 349 http://support.microsoft.com/kb/246071

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AZ-203 Exam Overview —Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure

Candidates for this exam are Azure Developers who design and build cloud solutions such as applications and services.

  • Develop Azure Infrastructure as a Service compute solution (10-15%)
  • Develop Azure Platform as a Service compute solution (20-25%)
  • Develop for Azure storage (15-20%)
  • Implement Azure security (10-15%)
  • Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize solutions (10-15%)
  • Connect to and consume Azure and third-party services (20-25%)

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-203

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  3. AZ-300

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You are developing a .NET Core model-view controller (MVC) application hosted on Azure for a health care system that
allows providers access to their information. You develop the following code:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q1

You define a role named SysAdmin.
You need to ensure that the application meets the following authorization requirements:
Allow the ProviderAdmin and SysAdmin roles access to the Partner controller regardless of whether the user holds an
editor claim of partner.
Limit access to the Manage action of the controller to users with an editor claim of partner who are also members of the
SysAdmin role.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each
code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q1-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q1-3

Explanation:
Box 1:
Allow the ProviderAdmin and SysAdmin roles access to the Partner controller regardless of whether the user holds an
editor claim of partner.
Box 2:
Limit access to the Manage action of the controller to users with an editor claim of partner who are also members of the
SysAdmin role.

QUESTION 2
You need to resolve the Policy Loss issue.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Add an Azure Event Hub. Send the policy to the event hub. Configure the Policy service to read actions from the
event hub.
B. Add an Azure Service Bus queue. Send the policy to the queue. Configure the Policy service to read actions from the
queue.
C. Add an Azure Queue storage queue. Send the policy to the queue. Configure the Policy service to read actions from
the queue.
D. Add an Azure Service Bus topic. Send the policy to the topic. Configure the Policy service to read actions from the
topic.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT You are developing an Azure Function App by using Visual Studio. The app will process orders input by an
Azure Web App. The web app places the order information into Azure Queue Storage. You need to review the Azure
Function App code shown below.

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q3

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q3-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q3-3

When there are multiple queue messages waiting, the queue trigger retrieves a batch of messages and invokes function
instances concurrently to process them. By default, the batch size is 16. When the number being processed gets down
to 8, the runtime gets another batch and starts processing those messages. So the maximum number of concurrent
messages being processed per function on one virtual machine (VM) is 24.
Box 4: Yes
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-bindings-storage-queue

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You need to update the order workflow to address the issue when calling the Printer API App. How should you complete
the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one
point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q4-2

Box 1: Fixed
To specify that the action or trigger waits the specified interval before sending the next request, set the to fixed.
Box 2: PT10S
Box 3: 5
Scenario: Calls to the Printer API App fail periodically due to printer communication timeouts.
Printer communication timeouts occur after 10 seconds. The label printer must only receive up to 5 attempts within one
minute.

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You need to ensure that security requirements are met.
What value should be used for the ConnectionString field on line DB03 in the Database class? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q5-2

Box 1: Integrated Security=SSPI
Integrated security: For all data source types, connect using the current user account.
For SqlClient you can use Integrated Security=true; or Integrated Security=SSPI;
Scenario: All access to Azure Storage and Azure SQL database must use the application\\’s Managed Service Identity
(MSI)
Box 2: Encrypt = True
Scenario: All data must be protected in transit.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/adonet/connection-string-syntax

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You need to tool code at line LE03 of Login Event to ensure that all authentication events are processed correctly. How
should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
You are developing a project management service by using ASP.NET. The service hosts conservations, files, to-do lists,
and a calendar that users can interact with at any time.
The application uses Azure Search for allowing users to search for keywords in the project data.
You need to implement code that creates the object which is used to create indexes in the Azure Search service.
Which two objects should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. SearchCredentials
B. SearchIndexClient
C. SearchServiceClient
D. SearchService
Correct Answer: BC
The various client libraries define classes like Index, Field, and Document, as well as operations like Indexes.Create
and Documents.Search on the SearchServiceClient and SearchIndexClient classes.
Example:
The sample application we\\’ll be exploring creates a new index named “hotels”, populates it with a few documents, then
executes some search queries. Here is the main program, showing the overall flow:
/ This sample shows how to delete, create, upload documents and query an index
static void Main(string[] args)
{
IConfigurationBuilder builder = new ConfigurationBuilder().AddJsonFile(“appsettings.json”);
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IConfigurationRoot configuration = builder.Build();
SearchServiceClient serviceClient = CreateSearchServiceClient(configuration);
Console.WriteLine(“{0}”, “Deleting index…\n”);
DeleteHotelsIndexIfExists(serviceClient);
Console.WriteLine(“{0}”, “Creating index…\n”);
CreateHotelsIndex(serviceClient);
ISearchIndexClient indexClient = serviceClient.Indexes.GetClient(“hotels”);
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/search/search-howto-dotnet-sdk

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
You need to ensure that PolicyLib requirements are met.
How should you complete the code segment? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations.
Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q8-2

QUESTION 9
You are developing an internal website for employees to view sensitive data. The website uses Azure Active Directory
(AAD) for authentication.
You need to implement multifactor authentication for the website.
What should you do? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Upgrade to Azure AD Premium.
B. In Azure AD conditional access, enable the baseline policy.
C. In Azure AD, create a new conditional access policy.
D. In Azure AD, enable application proxy.
E. Configure the website to use Azure AD B2C.
Correct Answer: AC
A: Multi-Factor Authentication comes as part of the following offerings:
Azure Active Directory Premium licenses – Full featured use of Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Service (Cloud) or
Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server (On-premises).
Multi-Factor Authentication for Office 365
Azure Active Directory Global Administrators
C: MFA Enabled by conditional access policy. It is the most flexible means to enable two-step verification for your users.
Enabling using conditional access policy only works for Azure MFA in the cloud and is a premium feature of Azure AD.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-getstarted

QUESTION 10
You are developing a software solution for an autonomous transportation system. The solution uses large data sets and
Azure Batch processing to simulate navigation sets for entire fleets of vehicles.
You need to create compute nodes for the solution on Azure Batch.
What should you do?
A. In the Azure portal, add a Job to a Batch account.
B. In a .NET method, call the method: BatchClient.PoolOperations.CreateJob
C. In Python, implement the class: JobAddParameter
D. In Azure CLI, run the command: az batch pool create
Correct Answer: B
A Batch job is a logical grouping of one or more tasks. A job includes settings common to the tasks, such as priority and
the pool to run tasks on. The app uses the BatchClient.JobOperations.CreateJob method to create a job on your pool.
Note:
Step 1: Create a pool of compute nodes. When you create a pool, you specify the number of compute nodes for the
pool, their size, and the operating system. When each task in your job runs, it\\’s assigned to execute on one of the
nodes in
your pool.
Step 2 : Create a job. A job manages a collection of tasks. You associate each job to a specific pool where that job\\’s
tasks will run. Step 3: Add tasks to the job. Each task runs the application or script that you uploaded to process the
data
files it downloads from your Storage account. As each task completes, it can upload its output to Azure Storage.
Incorrect Answers:
C: To create a Batch pool in Python, the app uses the PoolAddParameter class to set the number of nodes, VM size,
and a pool configuration.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/quick-run-dotnet

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You need to implement the Log policy.
How should you complete the EnsureLogging method in EventGridController.cs? To answer, select the appropriate
options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q11-2

Box 1: logdrop
All log files should be saved to a container named logdrop.
Box 2: 15
Logs must remain in the container for 15 days.
Box 3: UpdateApplicationSettings
All Azure App Service Web Apps must write logs to Azure Blob storage.
References:
https://blog.hompus.nl/2017/05/29/adding-application-logging-blob-to-a-azure-web-app-service-using-powershell

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
You develop software solutions for a mobile delivery service. You are developing a mobile app that users can use to
order from a restaurant in their area; The app uses the following workflow:
1.
A driver selects the restaurants for which they will deliver orders.
2.
Orders are sent to all available drivers in an area;
3.
Only orders for the selected restaurants will appear for the driver.
4.
The first driver to accept an order removes it from the list of available orders.
You need to implement an Azure Service Bus solution.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-203 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud -based email service.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

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[Valid, Updated] Cisco 350-701 Exam Questions 350-701 Pdf Dumps

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QUESTION 1
Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?
A. Sensitive data must remain onsite.
B. Demand is unpredictable.
C. The server team wants to outsource this service.
D. ESA is deployed inline.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?
A. authenticates the IKEv2 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
B. authenticates the IP address of the 172.16.0.0/32 peer by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
C. authenticates the IKEv1 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
D. secures all the certificates in the IKE exchange by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/security/a1/sec-a1-cr-book/sec-crc4.html#wp6039879000


QUESTION 3
Which two features are used to configure Cisco ESA with a multilayer approach to fight viruses and malware? (Choose
two.)
A. Sophos engine
B. white list
C. RAT
D. outbreak filters
E. DLP
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two.)
A. 64-bit block size, 112-bit key length
B. 64-bit block size, 168-bit key length
C. 128-bit block size, 192-bit key length
D. 128-bit block size, 256-bit key length
E. 192-bit block size, 256-bit key length
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Advanced_Encryption_Standard


QUESTION 5
On which part of the IT environment does DevSecOps focus?
A. application development
B. wireless network
C. data center
D. perimeter network
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Enable browser alerts for fraudulent websites.
B. Define security group memberships.
C. Revoke expired CRL of the websites.
D. Use antispyware software.
E. Implement email filtering techniques.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering
attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Patch for cross-site scripting.
B. Perform backups to the private cloud.
C. Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint.
D. Install a spam and virus email filter.
E. Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 8
Which option best describes RPL?
A. RPL stands for Routing over low priority links that use link-state LSAs to determine the best route between two root
border routers.
B. RPL stands for Routing over low priority links that use distance vector DOGAG to determine the best route between
two root border routers.
C. RPL stands for Routing over Low-power Lossy Networks that use link-state LSAs to determine the best route
between leaves and the root border router.
D. RPL stands for Routing over Low-power Lossy Networks that use distance vector DOGAG to determine the best
route between leaves and the root border router.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection?
A. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address bindings from the DHCP snooping
binding database.
B. In a typical network, make all ports as trusted except for the ports connecting to switches, which are untrusted.
C. DAI associates a trust state with each switch.
D. DAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about VRF-Aware Cisco Firewall are true? (Choose three)
A. It supports both global and per-VRF commands and DoS parameters.
B. It enables service providers to deploy firewalls on customer devices.
C. It can generate syslog messages that are visible only to individual VPNs.
D. It can support VPN networks with overlapping address ranges without NAT.
E. It enables service providers to implement firewalls on PE devices.
F. It can run as more than one instance.
Correct Answer: CEF


QUESTION 11
The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of
a network?
A. SDN controller and the cloud
B. management console and the SDN controller
C. management console and the cloud
D. SDN controller and the management solution
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Which API is used for Content Security?
A. NX-OS API
B. IOS XR API
C. OpenVuln API
D. AsyncOS API
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/security_management/sma/sma12-0/api/b_SMA_API_12/test_chapter_01.html


QUESTION 13
Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cisco ISE for the admin login to work?
A. RSA SecureID
B. Internal Database
C. Active Directory
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Booting Mac OS X v10.3 in verbose mode is most useful as a troubleshooting tool when _____________.
A. The system repeatedly crashes during startup
B. You repeatedly encounter application crashes.
C. The computer cannot communicate with a printer
D. You repeatedly encounter system crashes after logging in
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
To set up PPPoE, which port must you configure?
A. Modem
B. Ethernet
C. FireWire
D. AppleTalk
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
On a system with Mac OS X v10.3, you see the message, “You need to restart your computer. Hold down the Power
button for several seconds or press the Restart button.”
What does this message indicate?
A. A kernel panic has occurred.
B. Mac OS X must be reinstalled
C. The computer\\’s firmware needs to be updated.
D. The user activated a forced quit and restart.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which Mac OS X v10.3 utility is helpful when troubleshooting a computer\\’s Ethernet connectivity?
A. Network Utility
B. Activity Monitor
C. Network Monitor
D. Internet Connect
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
About which three system properties will System Profiler provide information? (Choose three.)
A. Installed PCI cards
B. Default network printer
C. Configured share points
D. Connected USB devices
E. Connected FireWire devices
F. Status of personal file sharing
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
Using Directory Access, you can configure your computer to__________.
A. Use a specific WINS server for SMB service discovery.
B. Be a member of more than one Windows workgroup.
C. Disable Finder\\’s Connect to Server feature.
D. Use AppleTalk to discover SMB services.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Which statement about FileVault is TRUE?
A. Once a user enables FileVault, it cannot be disabled.
B. FileVault can only be enabled for non-administrator user accounts.
C. There is no way to recover a FileVault-protected account user\\’s data if the password is lost.
D. When a user enables FileVault, that user\\’s home directory is transferred into an encrypted disk image.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
A non-administrative Mac OS X v10.3 user named “drking” wants to use an iMac with Mac OS X v10.3 as web server.
Where should he put his HTML files to be shared?
A. /Users/Public
B. /Users/Shared
C. /Users/drbill/Sites
D. /Users/drbill/Shared
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
What permissions can you set on file named ” Certkiller .rtf” using Ownership and Permissions section of the file\\’s Info
window? Choose all that apply.
A. Delete
B. Read only
C. Write only
D. No access
E. Execute only
F. Read and Write
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 10
Which two directories will NOT exist by default on which you have installed Mac OS X v10.3 and added a single user
named “Certkiller”? (Choose two.)
A. /Fonts
B. /Applications
C. /Library/Preferences
D. /System/Library/Caches
E. /Users/Certkiller/Documents
F. /Users/Certkiller/Library/Caches
G. /Users/Shared/Library/Caches
Correct Answer: AG


QUESTION 11
When you delete a user named “Certkiller” using the graphical user interface in Mac OS X v10.3, the contents of
Certkiller\\’s home folder can be ______________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. Deleted immediately
B. Moved to a folder named “Certkiller Deleted”
C. Converted to a .sit file and moved to the Deleted Users folder.
D. Converted to a .zip file and moved to the Deleted Users folder.
E. Converted to a .dmg file and moved to the Deletes Users folder.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
To allow other Mac OS X v10.3 users on the network to access a USB printer connected to your Macintosh, you can
__________.
A. Start Print Service in Mac OS X server.
B. Enable Network Printing in Print Setup Utility
C. Add a network print queue in Print Setup Utility.
D. Enable AppleTalk in the Network pane of System Preferences.
E. Select the option to Share my printers with other computers in the Print and Fax pane of System Preferences.
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
When should you create a content fragment?
A. When dynamic content will be referenced in multiple emails
B. When dynamic content will be referenced in only one email
C. When fixed content will be referenced in only one email
D. When reusable content will be referenced in multiple emails
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A customer is sending an email delivery that needs to offer a 30% discount to their premium profiles, and a 20%
discount to the remaining profiles of the targeted audience. How would you best approach this requirement?
A. Create a visibility condition that displays the 30% discount to premium profiles only.
B. Create one delivery targeting premium profiles and one delivery targeting non-premium profiles.
C. Create dynamic content with one condition that displays the 30% discount to premium profiles.
D. Create a visibility condition that displays the 20% discount to non-premium profiles only.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Every week, new data files are uploaded to the Adobe hosted SFTP server. What is the maximum time limit that files
remain on the SFTP server?
A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. 25 days
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You want to create a link between a custom resource “Office Location” and the Profile resource. Profiles and “Office
Location” each contain a six-character alphanumeric code (location ID) which uniquely define the office location. How
can you create this link?
A. On a custom profile resource, click “Add automatic ID field” and name it location ID and use it to define a link.
B. On a custom profile resource, define the location ID field as an “Identification keys” field.
C. Create a link in “Office Location”, use a specific join condition, and select the location ID fields of Profiles and “Office
Location”.
D. Use the primary key in both tables to define the link.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
For what two types of data is it best practice to export using the package export process? Choose two.
A. Profile
B. Content Templates
C. Logs
D. Business Data
E. Workflows
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Since the addition of a new geographic location to an existing Campaign instance, several users have reported they can
no longer log in to Campaign. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The users belong to parallel units which are or the same level in the hierarchy.
B. Adding a new geographic location automatically updates access rights for existing users.
C. The user\\’s access rights cache in the Admin Console must be refreshed for the changes to appear.
D. Users will not be able to connect as they cannot belong to more than one geographical unit at a time.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What three steps are needed to set up the double opt-in process? Choose three.
A. Create a new recurring delivery.
B. Set blacklist field of the Profile to false on double opt-in confirmation.
C. Create a new transactional message.
D. Create a confirmation landing page based on the Blacklist template or the Subscription template.
E. Set blacklist field of the Profile to true on double opt-in confirmation.
F. Create a confirmation landing page based on the Profile acquisition template or the Subscription template
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 8
You want to export a file containing the Label value for all created emails. Which out-of-the-box resource do you need to
query in the Export Activity?
A. Campaign
B. Messages
C. Delivery
D. Logs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A customer regularly uses a Query on the eventSubscriptions resource to select all profiles that are subscribed to an
event. What is the best practice for creating this Query?
A. Create a Query on the eventSubscriptions resource and select the email field from the profile link in the explorer
view.
B. Create a filter under Administration > Development > Predefined filters and then select the eventSubscriptions
resource. Create a filter containing two parameters: email and event and use it in the Query.
C. Create a Query on the eventSubscriptions resource and select the email and event fields from this resource in the
Shortcuts menu.
D. Create a new filter definition for the eventSubscriptions resource containing two parameters: email and event and use
this filter in the Query.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Review the following error message: The schema for profiles specified in the transition (\\’headxusEmployee\\’) is not
compatible with the schema defined in the delivery template {\\’nmsxecipient\\’). They should be identical.
What is causing this error?
A. There is no reconciliation with profiles.
B. There is no audience set in the delivery.
C. The schema in the delivery template is incorrect.
D. The transition is not linked to the delivery.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which configuration would allow a client to create a user that can access their French (FR) business unit but not allow
them access to German (DE) campaigns:
A. 1. Create new Security Groups named “FR Operators” and “DE Operators”
2.
Map all FR marketing activities to “FR Operators” Security Group
3.
Map the user to “FR Operators” group
B. 1. Create new Org Units named “FR” and “DE”
2.
Create new Security Groups named “FR Operators” and “DE Operators”
3.
Map Security groups to “FR” and “DE” Org Units, respectively
4.
Map all FR marketing activities to “FR” Org Unit
5.
Map the user to “FR Operators” group
C. 1. Create a new Org Unit named “EU”
2.
Create new Security Groups named “FR Operators” and “DE Operators”
3.
Map Security groups to “EU” Org Unit
4.
Map all marketing activities to “EU” Org Unit
5.
Map the user to “FR Operators” group
D. 1. Create new Org Units named “FR” and “DE”
2.
Map all FR. marketing activities to “FR” Org Unit
3.
Map the user to the “FR” Org Unit
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What are the two steps a developer must do to set up a key-based authentication in order to transfer files to the Adobehosted SFTP? Choose two.
A. Request Adobe support to whitelist IP addresses.
B. Upload a private key in the external account configuration.
C. Upload a public key in the external account configuration.
D. Provide the public key to Adobe support to have it uploaded to the SFTP server.
E. Provide the private key to Adobe support to have it uploaded to the SFTP server.
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q1

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q1-2

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q1-3

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You plan to allow connections between the VNET01-USEA2 and VNET01-USWE2 virtual networks.
You need to ensure that virtual machines can communicate across both virtual networks by using their private IP
address.
The solution must NOT require any virtual network gateways.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
Which blade should you instruct the finance department auditors to use?
A. Partner information
B. Cost analysis
C. Resource providers
D. Invoices
Correct Answer: D
You can opt in and configure additional recipients to receive your Azure invoice in an email. This feature may not be
available for certain subscriptions such as support offers, Enterprise Agreements, or Azure in Open. 1. Select your subscription from the Subscriptions page. Opt-in for each subscription you own. Click Invoices then Email
my invoice. 

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q2

2. Click Opt in and accept the terms.
Scenario: During the testing phase, auditors in the finance department must be able to review all Azure costs from the
past week.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-download-azure-invoice-daily-usage-date

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual machines.
You need to ensure that you receive an email message when any virtual machines are powered off, restarted, or
deallocated.
What is the minimum number of rules and action groups that you require?
A. three rules and three action groups
B. one rule and one action group
C. three rules and one action group
D. one rule and three action groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains the resources in the following table.

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q4

In Azure, you create a private DNS zone named adatum.com. You set the registration virtual network to VNet2. The
adatum.com zone is configured is shown in the following exhibit.

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q4-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q4-3

Correct Answer:

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q4-4

Box 1: No
Azure DNS provides automatic registration of virtual machines from a single virtual network that\\’s linked to a private
zone as a registration virtual network. VM5 does not belong to the registration virtual network though.
Box 2: No
Forward DNS resolution is supported across virtual networks that are linked to the private zone as resolution virtual
networks. VM5 does belong to a resolution virtual network.
Box 3: Yes
VM6 belongs to registration virtual network, and an A (Host) record exists for VM9 in the DNS zone.
By default, registration virtual networks also act as resolution virtual networks, in the sense that DNS resolution against the zone works from any of the virtual machines within the registration virtual network.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/private-dns-overview

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A company backs up data to on-premises servers at their main facility. The company currently has 30 TB of archived
data that infrequently used. The facility has download speeds of 100 Mbps and upload speeds of 20 Mbps.
You need to securely transfer all backups to Azure Blob Storage for long-term archival. All backup data must be sent
within seven days.
Solution: Create a file share in Azure Files. Mount the file share to the server and upload the files to the file share.
Transfer the files to Azure Blob Storage.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You have a web app named WebApp1 that uses an Azure App Service plan named Plan1. Plan1 uses the D1 pricing
tier and has an instance count of 1.
You need to ensure that all connections to WebApp1 use HTTPS.
What should you do first?
A. Scale up Plan1.
B. Modify the connection strings for WebApp1.
C. Scale out Plan1.
D. Disable anonymous access to WebApp1.
Correct Answer: A
The D1 (Shared) pricing tier does not support HTTPS.

QUESTION 7
You have a task that includes a WebJob that should run continuously. The WebJob Log exhibit shows the text that is
displayed when the WebJob runs. (Click the WebJob Log tab.)

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q7

The WebJob is configured as shown in the WebJob Configuration exhibit. (Click the WebJob Configuration tab.)

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q7-2

The WebJob is not functioning as expected. The WebJob Code exhibit has a comment that shows where code should
be added. (Click the WebJob Code tab.) You need to identify any issues with the WebJob. For each of the following
statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q7-3

Correct Answer:

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q7-4

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a resource group named RG1. RG1
contains resources that were deployed by using templates.
You need to view the date and time when the resources were created in RG1.
Solution: From the Subscription blade, you select the subscription, and then click Resource providers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q9

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q9-2

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q9-3

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q9-4

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment.
While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and
paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You need to allow RDP connections over TCP port 3389 to VM1 from the Internet. The solutions must prevent
connections from the Internet over all other TCP ports.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
Correct Answer: See solution below.
Step 1: Create a new network security group
Step 2: Select your new network security group.

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q9-5

Step 3: Select Inbound security rules. Under Add inbound security rule, enter the following Destination: Select Network
security group, and then select the security group you created previously. Destination port ranges: 3389 Protocol: Select
TCP

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q9-6

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/tutorial-filter-network-traffic

QUESTION 10
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q10

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q10-2

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q10-3

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and
this
exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete
each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all
other
sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You need to create a function app named corp8548987n1 that supports sticky sessions. The solution must minimize the
Azure-related costs of the App Service plan.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud-based email service.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto-configure-notifications

QUESTION 12
You are designing an Azure solution.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
Distribute traffic to different pools of dedicated virtual machines (VMs) based on rules
Provide SSL offloading capabilities
You need to recommend a solution to distribute network traffic.
Which technology should you recommend?
A. server-level firewall rules
B. Azure Application Gateway
C. Azure Traffic Manager
D. Azure Load Balancer
Correct Answer: B
If you require “SSL offloading”, application layer treatment, or wish to delegate certificate management to Azure, you
should use Azure\\’s layer 7 load balancer Application Gateway instead of the Load Balanacer. Incorrect Answers:
D: Because Load Balancer is agnostic to the TCP payload and TLS offload (“SSL”) is not provided. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/overview

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Adatum and an Azure Subscription named Subscription1.
Adatum contains a group named Developers. Subscription1 contains a resource group named Dev.
You need to provide the Developers group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group.
Solution: On Dev, you assign the Contributor role to the Developers group.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
The Contributor role lets you manage everything except access to resources. It allows you to create and manage
resources of all types, including creating Azure logic apps.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles#contributor

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QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the CourierMobile app determines whether the franchisee owns the account. What should you do?
A. Use OAuth and App only security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/ sitecollection/web/list scope URI.
B. Use OAuth and App+User security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/
sitecollection scope URI.
C. Use SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in
the site collection.
D. Use the SharePoint user credentials of the bicycle messenger to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
070-488 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites. You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites. What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: The sites have been deleted.They need to be restored.A and B are wrong because modifying the Recycle Bin settings after the sites are deleted will have no effect on the deleted sites.
QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the CloudManager app can write route progress check-ins to the courier’s microfeed. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensure that SP.RequestExecutor.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
B. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Manage permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
C. Ensure that the MySite host is provisioned for each franchisee.
D. Ensure that all cookies are made available between the My Site and the CloudManager app domain.
E. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Write permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
F. Ensure that SP.UserProfiles.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
70-488 dumps Correct Answer: ABDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
/ Business Requirements
The FranchiseMonitor app must allow a Franchise employee to upload Appointments.csv to a SharePoint document library in each Franchisee site collection, and send Appointments.csv to the CloudManager app. / The FranchiseMonitor app must display the courier’s location on the bicycle courier’s microfeed on the SharePoint farm if the courier has remained stationary for more than three minutes. / The CloudManager app must implement business logic that parses Appointments.csv and geo- location data and sends Appointments or Appointment cancellations to the CourierMobile app.
QUESTION 4
You need to implement the custom claims provider for the SharePoint farm. Which code segments should you implement? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
MyClaimsProvider.es
070-488 dumps

QUESTION 5
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition and permissions at the site level
D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
070-488 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives. For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From scenario:
* The CourierMobile app receives Microsoft Outlook appointments (D) and Outlook appointment cancellations (E) from the CloudManager app. The appointments include the address of the location for pick-up or drop-off.
QUESTION 7
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app. Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
070-488 vce Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: SQL Azure in the cloud. lightweight version of Express that has the same programmability features, but
D: LocalDB is a it runs in user mode and has a fast, zero-configuration installation and a short list of prerequisites.
From scenario:
* CourierMobile App
The CourierMobile app must be able to capture more than 30 million data points of location data daily as they occur and upload the location data to the cloud when connected to the Internet.
* Cloudmanager App
/ The CloudManager app must elastically scale to capture courier location data as the number of bicycle couriers increases or decreases. / The CloudManager app must process bicycle courier location data from a data store capable of storing more than 30 million items.

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Question No : 30 – (Topic 1)  You are migrating a database named Orders to a new server that runs Microsoft SQL
Server 2012. You attempt to add the [Corpnet\User1] login to the database. However, you receive the following error message: “User already exists in current database.” You need to configure the [Corpnet\User1] login to be able to access the Orders database and retain the original permissions. You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum required permissions. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. DROP USER [User1]; CREATE USER [Corpnet\User1] FOR LOGIN [Corpnet\User1]; ALTER ROLE [db_owner] ADD MEM3ER [Corpnet\User1];
 B. ALTER SERVER RCLS Isysadmin] ADD MEMBER [Corpnet\User1];
C. ALTER USER [Corpnet\User1] WITH LOGIN [Corpnet\User1];
D. ALTER ROLE [db owner] ADD MEMBBR [Corpnet\User1];
070-462 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 31 – (Topic 1)  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You configure Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) on the Orders database by using the following statements:
070-462 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
Question No : 32 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that has multiple databases. You need to ensure that users are unable to create stored procedures that begin with sp_. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Question No : 33 – (Topic 1)  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You provide temporary securityadmin access to User1 to the database server. You need to know if User1 adds logins to securityadmin. Which server-level audit action group should you use?
A. SERVER_STATE_CHANGE_GROUP
B. SERVER_PRINCIPAL_IMPERSONATION_GROUP
C. SUCCESSFUL_LOGIN_GROUP
D. SERVER_ROLE_MEMBER_CHANGE_GROUP
70-462 dumps Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
SERVER_STATE_CHANGE_GROUP
This event is raised when the SQL Server service state is modified. Equivalent to the Audit Server Starts and Stops Event Class. SERVER_PRINCIPAL_IMPERSONATION_GROUP This event is raised when there is an impersonation within server scope, such as EXECUTE AS <login>. Equivalent to the Audit Server Principal Impersonation Event Class.
SUCCESSFUL_LOGIN_GROUP Indicates that a principal has successfully logged in to SQL Server. Events in this class are raised by new connections or by connections that are reused from a connection pool. Equivalent to the Audit Login Event Class. SERVER_ROLE_MEMBER_CHANGE_GROUP This event is raised whenever a login is added or removed from a fixed server role. This event is raised for the sp_addsrvrolemember and sp_dropsrvrolemember stored procedures. Equivalent to the Audit Add Login to Server Role Event Class. You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance.
Question No : 34 – (Topic 1)  You need to stop a blocking process that has an SPID of 64 without stopping other
processes What should you do?
A. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement: EXECUTE sp_KillSPID 64
B. Restart the SQL Server service.
C. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement: KILL 64
D. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement: ALTER SESSION KILL ’64’
Answer: C
 Question No : 35 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server. A variety of issues occur from time to time in the production environment. You need to identify the appropriate tool for each issue. Which tool or tools should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate tool or tools to the correct issue or issues in the answer area. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
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Question No : 36 – (Topic 1) You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. Users report that an application that accesses the database displays an error, but the error does not provide meaningful information. No entries are found in the SQL Server log or Windows event logs related to the error. You need to identify the root cause of the issue by retrieving the error message. What should you do?
A. Create an Extended Events session by using the sqlserver.error_reported event.
B. Create a SQL Profiler session to capture all ErrorLog and EventLog events.
C. Flag all stored procedures for recompilation by using sp_recompile.
D. Execute sp_who.
070-462 pdf Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server. One of the databases on the server supports a highly active OLTP application. Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data into the application.
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)  You need to identify which queries are taking longer than 1 second to run over an extended period of time. What should you do?
A. use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of more than 1,000.
B. Use sp_configure to set a value for blocked process threshold. Create an extended event session.
C. Use the Job Activity monitor to review all processes that are actively running. Review the Job History to find out the duration of each step.
D. Run the sp_who command from a query window.
E. Run the DBCC TRACEON 1222 command from a query window and review the SQL Server event log.
Answer: E
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
Verified the SQL Profiler and DBCC answers as correct. However, while Profiler will show  this information, the best practice with Profiler is to use it short-term. The question specifically states “over an extended period of time”. That means Profiler wouldn’t be the best tool for this scenario. Therefore, DBCC would be the best answer.

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QUESTION 1
A mobile device user is concerned about geographic positioning information being included in messages sent between
users on a popular social network platform. The user turns off the functionality in the application, but wants to ensure the
application cannot re-enable the setting without the knowledge of the user.
Which of the following mobile device capabilities should the user disable to achieve the stated goal?
A. Device access control
B. Location based services
C. Application control
D. GEO-Tagging
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
A security auditor is putting together a report for the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) on personnel security and its impact
on the security posture of the whole organization. Which of the following would be the MOST important factor to
consider when it comes to personnel security?
A. Insider threats
B. Privilege escalation
C. Hacktivist
D. Phishing through social media
E. Corporate espionage
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Two users need to send each other emails over unsecured channels. The system should support the principle of nonrepudiation. Which of the following should be used to sign the user\\’s certificates?
A.RA
B. CA
C. CRL
D. CSR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company\\’s user lockout policy is enabled after five unsuccessful login attempts. The help desk notices a user is
repeatedly locked out over the course of a workweek. Upon contacting the user, the help desk discovers the user is on
vacation and does not have network access. Which of the following types of attacks are MOST likely occurring? (Select
two.)
A. Replay
B. Rainbow tables
C. Brute force
D. Pass the hash
E. Dictionary
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 5
A bank is experiencing a DoS attack against an application designed to handle 500 IP-based sessions.
in addition, the perimeter router can only handle 1Gbps of traffic.
Which of the following should be implemented to prevent a DoS attacks in the future?
A. Deploy multiple web servers and implement a load balancer
B. Increase the capacity of the perimeter router to 10 Gbps
C. Install a firewall at the network to prevent all attacks
D. Use redundancy across all network devices and services
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
A security analyst receives a notification from the IDS after working hours, indicating a spike in network traffic. Which of
the following BEST describes this type of IDS?
A. Anomaly-based
B. Stateful
C. Host-based
D. Signature-based
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A website administrator has received an alert from an application designed to check the integrity of the company\\’s
website. The alert indicated that the hash value for a particular MPEG file has changed. Upon further investigation, the
media appears to be the same as it was before the alert.
Which of the following methods has MOST likely been used?
A. Cryptography
B. Time of check/time of use
C. Man in the middle
D. Covert timing
E. Steganography
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 8
Two users need to securely share encrypted files via email. Company policy prohibits users from sharing credentials or
exchanging encryption keys.
Which of the following can be implemented to enable users to share encrypted data while abiding by company policies?
A. Key escrow
B. Digital signatures
C. PKI
D. Hashing
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
A company wants to ensure that the validity of publicly trusted certificates used by its web server can be determined
even during an extended internet outage. Which of the following should be implemented?
A. Recovery agent
B. Ocsp
C. Crl
D. Key escrow
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A security analyst is reviewing the following output from an IPS:

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Given this output, which of the following can be concluded? (Select two.)
A. The source IP of the attack is coming from 250.19.18.22.
B. The source IP of the attack is coming from 250.19.18.71.
C. The attacker sent a malformed IGAP packet, triggering the alert.
D. The attacker sent a malformed TCP packet, triggering the alert.
E. The TTL value is outside of the expected range, triggering the alert.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the proper order for logging a user into a system from the first step to the last step?
A. Identification, authentication, authorization
B. Identification, authorization, authentication
C. Authentication, identification, authorization
D. Authentication, identification, authorization
E. Authorization, identification, authentication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A new mobile application is being developed in-house. Security reviews did not pick up any major flaws, however
vulnerability scanning results show fundamental issues at the very end of the project cycle.
Which of the following security activities should also have been performed to discover vulnerabilities earlier in the
lifecycle?
A. Architecture review
B. Risk assessment
C. Protocol analysis
D. Code review
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An application was recently compromised after some malformed data came in via web form. Which of the following
would MOST likely have prevented this?
A. Input validation
B. Proxy server
C. Stress testing
D. Encoding
Correct Answer: A

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