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best preparation method to pass the Cisco 300-206 exam, latest Cisco 300-206 exam dumps

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Cisco 300-206 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
What is the lowest combination of ASA model and license providing 1 Gigabit Ethernet interfaces?
A. ASA 5505 with failover license option
B. ASA 5510 Security+ license option
C. ASA 5520 with any license option
D. ASA 5540 with AnyConnect Essentials License option
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which option is a different type of secondary VLAN?
A. Transparent
B. Promiscuous
C. Virtual
D. Community
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
What is the best description of a unified ACL on a Cisco Firewall
A. An Ipv4 ACL with Ipv4 support
B. An ACL the support EtherType in additional Ipv6
C. An ACL with both Ipv4 and Ipv6 functionality
D. An Ipv6 ACL with Ipv4 backward compatitiblity
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa90/configuration/guide/asa_90_cli_config/intro_intro.htmlpass4itsure 300-206 exam question q3

 

QUESTION 4
Choose two correct statements about private-vlan.
A. Interface that is assigned to primary-vlan ID (access mode) can communicate with interface with secondary vlan ID
that belongs to same primary-vlan (same switch)
B. Interface that is assigned to community vlan can communicate with interface in the same secondary vlan but it is also
configured as protected (same switch)
C. You have to configure dhcp snooping for both primary and secondary VLANs
D. You have to configure DAI only for primary vlan
E. You cannot combine private-vlan feature with protected ports ?
Correct Answer: DE
You can enable DHCP snooping on private VLANs. When you enable DHCP snooping on the primary VLAN, it is
propagated to the secondary VLANs. If you configure DHCP snooping on a secondary VLAN, the configuration does not
take
effect if the primary VLAN is already configured. The same statement is true about DAI.
A private-VLAN port cannot be a secure port and should not be configured as a protected port.

 

QUESTION 5
What are Options of capture command
A. host
B. real-time
C. type
Correct Answer: BC
real-time, type, interface,buffer, match, packet-lenght,trace,circular-buffer, ethernet-type,acces-list, headers-only

 

QUESTION 6
Which command is the first that you enter to check whether or not ASDM is installed on the ASA?
A. Show ip
B. Show running-config asdm
C. Show running-config boot
D. Show version
E. Show route
Correct Answer: Dpass4itsure 300-206 exam question q6

 

QUESTION 7pass4itsure 300-206 exam question q7

Which two option are protocol and tools are used by management plane when using cisco ASA general management
plane hardening ?
A. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
B. NetFlow
C. Routing Protocol Authentication
D. Threat detection
E. Syslog
F. ICMP unreachables
G. Cisco URL Filtering
Correct Answer: BE
http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/firewall-best-practices.html

pass4itsure 300-206 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
CSM (or Prime Infra) Dashboardspass4itsure 300-206 exam question q8

Correct Answer:
Top Destinations –This report ranks the session destinations of all built/deny firewall events received by Security
Manager. The report shows the destination IP address, the count of the number of events for each address, and the
percentage
of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in the Pie, XY, or Bar graph
that represents a specific destination to see report information about the top sources and top services associated with
that
destination (see Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Sources –This report ranks the session sources of all built/deny firewall events received by Security Manager. The
report shows the source IP address, the count of the number of events for each address, and the percentage of the
count
compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in the Pie, XY, or Bar graph that
represents a specific source to see report information about the top destinations and top services associated with that
source (see
Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Services –This report ranks the destination services of all built/deny firewall events received by Security Manager.
TCP and UDP services include the port number. The report shows the service, the count of the number of events for
each
service, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in
the Pie, XY, or Bar graph that represents a specific service to see report information about the top destinations and top
sources associated with that service (see Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Infected Hosts –This report ranks the top infected hosts for traffic originating from infected hosts to black- or gray-
listed sites based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the IP address of the infected
host
with the firewall interface name on which the event was detected in parentheses, the count of the number of
connections logged to blacklisted or gray-listed sites for each address, the count of the number of connections that were
blocked
(dropped) by botnet traffic filtering, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report.
Top Malware Ports –This report ranks the top destination ports for traffic originating from infected hosts to black or gray-
listed sites based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the destination malware port,
the
count of the number of connections logged to blacklisted or gray-listed sites for each port, the count of the number of
connections that were blocked (dropped) by botnet traffic filtering, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum
of
all counts in the report.
Top Malware Sites –This report ranks the top botnet sites (black or gray-listed sites) for all inbound and outbound
sessions based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the following information:
IP Address–The IP address that is indicated as the malicious host in botnet events, either on the black list or the grey
list.
Malware Site–The domain name or IP address in the dynamic filter database to which the traffic was initiated.
List Type–Whether the site is on the black list or the grey list. Connections Logged–The count of the number of
connections logged or monitored for each site. Connections Blocked–The count of the number of connections that were
blocked
(dropped) by botnet traffic filtering for each site. Threat Level–The botnet threat level for the site, from very low to very
high, or none. Category–The category of threat the site poses as defined in the botnet database, such as botnet,
Trojan,
spyware, and so on.
VPN dashboards
Top Bandwidth Users –This report ranks the VPN users who consumed the most bandwidth. The report shows the
usernames, the bandwidth in total number of bytes sent and received, and the percentage of reported bandwidth used
by
each user.
Top Duration Users –This report ranks the VPN users who remained connected to the network for the longest time. The
report shows the usernames, the connection duration time in days hours:minutes:seconds format, and the percentage
of
the reported duration by each user.
The chart shows duration in seconds.
Top Throughput Users –This report ranks the VPN users who sent and received data at the highest throughput rate.
The report shows the usernames, the throughput for each user in kbps, and the percentage of reported throughput by
each
user. The throughput is calculated as 8.0 *(bandwidth of the user in bytes)/(duration for which the user is connected in
seconds*1000.0).
Connection Profile Report –This report provides a count of user, session, and summary of the bandwidth utilization and
throughput usage for each remote access connection profile. The default report contains this information for all devices
for the previous hour. You can customize the report in several different ways.
User Report –This report provides a summary of the bandwidth utilization, connection duration and throughput usage
for each remote access VPN user. The report shows the usernames, the bandwidth in total number of bytes sent and
received, the connection duration time in days hours:minutes:seconds format, and the throughput for each user in kbps.
The throughput is throughput is calculated as 8.0*(bandwidth of the user in bytes)/(duration for which the user is
connected in seconds*1000.0). Beginning with Security Manager 4.7, the User Report provides both user-level details
and session-level details:
User-Level Details –For a particular user, the user-level details represent the combined value of all that user\\’s
sessions: Username, Total no. of Sessions, Bandwidth, Duration, and Throughput. Session-Level Details –Expanding
the tree
displays the session-level details for each session that a particular user has a VPN connection with; the session-level
details encompass the Session ID, Login Time, Logout Time, Bandwidth, Throughput, and Duration of the Session.
(Here
the logout time is calculated by using the formula Logout Time = Login Time + Duration.)

 

QUESTION 9
What are two reasons to implement Cisco IOS MPLS Bandwidth-Assured Layer 2 Services? (Choose two.)
A. guaranteed bandwidth and peak rates as well as low cycle periods, regardless of which systems access the device
B. increased resiliency through MPLS FRR for AToM circuits and better bandwidth utilization through MPLS TE
C. enabled services over an IP/MPLS infrastructure, for enhanced MPLS Layer 2 functionality
D. provided complete proactive protection against frame and device spoofing
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 10
Which three options are hardening techniques for Cisco IOS routers? (Choose three.)
A. limiting access to infrastructure with access control lists
B. enabling service password recovery
C. using SSH whenever possible
D. encrypting the service password
E. using Telnet whenever possible
F. enabling DHCP snooping
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 11
What is the default behavior of NAT control on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3?
A. NAT control has been deprecated on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3.
B. It will prevent traffic from traversing from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
C. It will allow traffic to traverse from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
D. It will deny all traffic.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which URL matches the regex statement “http”*/”www.cisco.com/”*[^E]”xe”?
A. https://www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
B. https://cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
C. http:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.Exe
D. https:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.EXE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which three configurations tasks do you perform to allow Not Flow on a Cisco ASA G500 Series firewall? (Choose
three)
A. Apply the newly created class map to the global policy.
B. Enable NetFlow Version 9.
C. Create a class map match interesting traffic.
D. Create an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996.
E. Define a NetFlow collector by using the flow-export command.
F. Apply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction
Correct Answer: ACE

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
100-105 exam Answer: E
Explanation:
For packets destined to a host on another IP network, the destination MAC address will be the LAN interface of the router. Since the FTP server lies on a different network, the host will know to send the frame to its default gateway, which is Toronto.
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Switches use a separate collision domain for each port, so device A must be a switch. Hubs, however, place all ports in the same collision domain so device B is a hub. Switches reside in layer 2 while hubs are layer 1 devices.
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1) Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
100-105 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons. First, the foundation of the Internet was built using the TCP/IP suite and through the spread of the World Wide Web and Internet, TCP/IP has been preferred. Second, a project researched by the Department of Defense (DOD) consisted of creating the TCP/IP protocols. The DOD’s goal was to bring international standards which could not be met by the OSI model. Since the DOD was the largest software consumer and they preferred the TCP/IP suite, most vendors used this model rather than the OSI. Below is a side by side comparison of the TCP/IP and OSI models.
100-105 dumps

Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the router.
A. A Core router.
B. The HQ Internet gateway router.
C. The WAN router at the central site.
D. Remote stub router at a remote site.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since the routing table shows only a single default route using the single interface serial 0/0, we know that this is most likely a remote stub site with a single connection to the rest of the network. All the other answer options would mean that this router would have more connections, and would contain more routes.
Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

As packets travel from Mary to Robert, which three devices will use the destination MAC address of the packet to determine a forwarding path? (Choose three.)
A. Hub1
B. Switch1
C. Router1
D. Switch2
E. Router2
F. Switch3
100-105 pdf Answer: B,D,F
Explanation:
Switches use the destination MAC address information for forwarding traffic, while routers use the destination IP address information. Local Area Networks employ Layer 2 Switches and Bridges to forward and filter network traffic. Switches and Bridges operate at the Data Link Layer of the Open System Interconnect Model (OSI). Since Switches and Bridges operate at the Layer 2 they operate more intelligently than hubs, which work at Layer 1 (Physical Layer) of the OSI. Because the switches and bridges are able to listen to the traffic on the wire to examine the source and destination MAC address. Being able to listen to the traffic also allows the switches and bridges to compile a MAC address table to better filter and forward network traffic. To accomplish the above functions switches and bridges carry out the following tasks: MAC address learning by a switch or a bridge is accomplished by the same method. The switch or bridge listens to each device connected to each of its ports and scan the incoming frame for the source MAC address. This creates a MAC address to port map that is cataloged in the switches/bridge MAC database. Another name for the MAC address table is content addressable memory or CAM table. When a switch or bridge is listening to the network traffic, it receives each frame and compares it to the MAC address table. By checking the MAC table the switch/ bridge are  able o determine which port the frame came in on. If the frame is on the MAC table the frame is filtered or transmitted on only that port. If the switch determines that the frame is not on the MAC table, the frame is forwarded out to all ports except the incoming port.
Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)  Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Ethernet networking uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detect (CSMA/CD), a protocol that helps devices share the bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time on the network medium. CSMA/CD was created to overcome the problem of those collisions that occur when packets are transmitted simultaneously from different nodes. And trust me, good collision management is crucial, because when a node transmits in a CSMA/CD network, all the other nodes on the network receive and examine that transmission. Only bridges and routers can effectively prevent a transmission from propagating throughout the entire network! So, how does the CSMA/CD protocol work? Like this: when a host wants to transmit over the network, it first checks for the presence of a digital signal on the wire. If all is clear (no other host is transmitting), the host will then proceed with its transmission. But it doesn’t stop there. The transmitting host constantly monitors the wire to make sure no other hosts begin transmitting. If the host detects another signal on the wire, it sends out an extended jam signal that causes all nodes on the segment to stop sending data (think, busy signal). The nodes respond to that jam signal by waiting a while before attempting to transmit again. Backoff algorithms determine when the colliding stations can retransmit. If collisions keep occurring after 15 tries, the nodes attempting to transmit will then time out.
Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)  Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required?
A. HTTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. Telnet
E. UDP
100-105 vce Answer: E
Explanation:
UDP provides a connectionless datagram service that offers best-effort delivery, which means that UDP does not guarantee delivery or verify sequencing for any datagrams. A source host that needs reliable communication must use either TCP or a program that provides its own sequencing and acknowledgment services.
QUESTION NO: 18
John works as a Web Developer for ProMetaworks Inc. He creates an ASP.NET application,  named MyApp1, using Visual Studio .NET. MyApp1 contains a page, named Page1. Page1 contains several TextBox controls that accept users’ input. John uses several validation controls on the page to validate input controls. He wants to display all the validation error messages on t page in a message box. However, he does not want the validation summary to be displayed inli on the Web page. What will he do to accomplish the task?
A. Add a ValidationSummary control to the page. Set its ShowMessageBox and ShowSummary properties to true.
B. Add a ValidationSummary control to the page. Set its DisplayMode property to MessageBox
C. Add a ValidationSummary control to the page. Set its ShowMessageBox property to true and ShowSummary property to false.
D. Add a CustomValidator control to the page. Write a custom client-side script function. Set the
ClientValidationFunction property of the control to the name of the function.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
David works as a Software Developer for McRobert Inc. He develops a Windows-based application, named App1, using Visual C# .NET. The application contains a Form control, name Form1. He wants to write code to initialize class-level variables, named Var1, Var2, and Var3, a soon as Form1 is instantiated. Which of the following code will he use to accomplish this?
A. private void Form1_Initialize(System.Object sender, System.EventArgs e)
{
int Var1 = 20;
int Var2 = 40;
int Var3 = 60;
}
B. private void Form1_New(System.Object sender, System.EventArgs e)
{
int Var1 = 20;
int Var2 = 40;
int Var3 = 60;
}
C. private void Form1_Load(System.Object sender, System.EventArgs e)
{
int Var1 = 20;
int Var2 = 40;
int Var3 = 60;
}
D. private void Form1_Create(System.Object sender, System.EventArgs e)
{
int Var1 = 20;
int Var2 = 40;
int Var3 = 60;
}
100-105 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
Ryan works as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. He creates an ASP.NET Web application named MyWebApplication using Visual Studio .NET 2005. MyWebApplication performs validation on XML files in a directory. Whenever a new XML file appears in the directory, MyWebApplication opens the file, checks it for validation, and updates it accordingly. Ryan wants to ensure that each update performed on XML files is logged in the Web application log. He creates a String object named Var1, to store the message to be logged. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. The EventLog.Source property
B. The EventLog.WriteEntry method
C. The Trace.WriteLine method
D. The EventLog.EventLogSource property
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 21
You work as a Windows Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create a Windows Forms application using .NET Framework 3.5. You need to execute a method named ProcAmount in the background of the application. The method requires that an integer value 101 is passed to it. You are required to pass an integer value 101 to start a background thread. Which of the following code segments should you use? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. ParameterizedThreadStart tStart;
tStart = new ParameterizedThreadStart(ProcAmount);

Thread thd = new Thread(tStart);
B. thd.Start(101);
C. ThreadStart tStart = new ThreadStart(ProcAmount);
Thread thd = new Thread(tStart, 101);
D. thd.Start();
100-105 dumps Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 63
Layer 4 application mapping allows which of the following criteria to match an application: (Select 3)
A. MAC address of the host
B. IP address of the host
C. Port number
D. IP protocol
E. Application name
F. User name
200-150 exam Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
For the Cascade Profiler, what best describes a“Notification”?
A. A Notice that an Event has occurred
B. A Notice that a report is ready to be emailed
C. A Notice that a Policy has initialized
D. A Notice that a query has completed
E. All of the Above
F. None of the Above
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
Two popular data center projects that network visibility tools can assist with include:
A. Virtualization and Data Center Mobility
B. Rationalization and Irrationalization
C. Virtualization and Data Center Consolidation
D. Remote Site monitoring and Packet Exportation
E. Data Import and Data Export
200-150 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66
What is the proper way to install and license Cascade Pilot? (Select 2)
A. Ensure Internet connectivity and activate the application online during installation.
B. Install the application and activate it through the phone.
C. Install the application on your Linux or Windows system and then launch it.
D. Install the application on your Windows machine and then launch it.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 67
Which of the following dashboard widgets is most suitable for monitoring the status of an entire Service, including both front-end and back-end (server-server) segments?
A. Service Health
B. Service Health by Location
C. Watched Applications
D. Current Events
E. System Messages
200-150 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68
Once the Cascade Shark appliance has an initial configuration with an IP Address set to 10.1.1.1 you can connect to it from a web browser using the URL:
A. http://10.1.1.1
B. https://10.1.1.1
C. https://10.1.1.1:443
D. https://10.1.1.1:8080
E. http://10.1.1.1:8080
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
A company would like to have the Cascade Profiler report DNS-derived host names in reports. To allow this the Cascade Profiler must be configured by:
A. Using the Primary DNS server obtained via DHCP from the Cascade Profiler’s management interface.
B. Using the Secondary DNS server obtained via DHCP from the Cascade Profiler’s management interface.
C. Using the Tertiary DNS server obtained via DHCP from the Cascade Profiler’s management interface.
D. Using the DNS server(s) as defined in the Configuration > General Settings page.
E. Using any DNS servers the Cascade Profiler auto-discovers in the Inside Address space, found in the Configuration > DNS Settings page.
200-150 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
A trace clip created with Cascade Pilot is:
A. A packet capture (pcap) file that is open on the local file system for analysis by Cascade Pilot.
B. A packet capture (pcap) file that is exported on to the Cascade Shark OS disk for analysis by Cascade Pilot.
C. A capture job that is suspended or stopped.
D. A time filter into a job trace.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71
What is the size of the Cascade Shark appliance OS drive?
A. 250GB
B. 500GB
C. 750GB
D. 1TB
200-150 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
How can Cascade Profiler help me understand where I should be optimizing or placing
A. Cascade Profiler has “Out-of-the-box” WAN reports which provide Optimization benefits reports based upon bandwidth consumed by optimizable applications.
B. With Cascade Profiler you can run reports by Bandwidth to determine which WAN links are congested.
C. With Cascade Profiler you can run reports on interfaces that break down how much bandwidth is used by business critical applications to understand which interfaces to focus on for optimization.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
How does Cascade obtain information about Retransmissions in the network?
A. It obtains L2 retransmissions from switches and routers via SNMP.
B. It obtains TCP retransmissions by tracking TCP segments via the Sensor.
C. Both A and B.
D. Cascade does not track retransmissions.
E. Cascade obtains retransmissions from Netflow (retransmissions are sent as a flag as part of standard netflow).
200-150 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 74
Which technology can be used to determine that a TCP Reset has been sent from a server to client?
A. Packet Collection Only
B. Flow Collection Only
C. SNMP Statistics Only
D. Flow Collection or Packet Collection
E. SNMP Statistics or Packet Collection
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 75
What version of Windows is/are supported by the Cascade Active Directory Connector? (Select 2)
A. NT 4.0
B. Windows Server 2003
C. Windows Server 2008
D. Windows Server 2005
E. A & D
200-150 pdf Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
Authentication mechanisms supported by the Cascade Profiler arE. (Select 2)
A. Local user accounts
B. Active Directory
C. TACACS+
D. RADIUS
E. LDAP
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77
What are the supported speeds on the Cascade management interfaces?
A. 100/1000Mbps
B. 1000Mbps
C. 10/100Mbps
D. 10/100/1000Mbps
E. 10000Mbps
200-150 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
Alerts triggered in Cascade Profiler are distributed to recipients by Cascade Profiler using which mechanism(s):
A. None, alerts are accessible via the Cascade GUI only
B. SNMP traps only
C. SMTP email only
D. Pager only
E. One of SMTP email or SNMP trap but not both
F. SNMP traps and SMTP mail, each one optional, both allowed
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
What is the value provided by creating host groups in Cascade Profiler? (Select 2)
A. You can track, report and alert on organizationally meaningful categories of traffic
B. To control access to Cascade data
C. To quickly quarantine hosts affected by a virus
D. To increase the scalability of the Cascade database
E. To view the traffic of many hosts from multiple perspectives
200-150 exam Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 80
In Cascade Profiler, how many items can be displayed in a single watched list in a Dashboard Content Block?
A. Unlimited
B. 10
C. 4
D. 20
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81
What is a benefit of Cascade’s Deep-Packet Inspection? (Select 4)
A. Cascade can determine every URL that a client goes to out on the internet.
B. Cascade can identify applications at Layer7 which will aid in determining business versus non business use-age of resources.
C. Cascade can identify applications that use multiple common ports based upon Layer7 to more readily track application dependencies.
D. Cascade can be configured with URLs, match those URL’s to application names and, in order to understand which applications are utilized on web servers that host multiple web applications over the same TCP port.
E. Cascade can identify unencrypted applications such as FTP and TELNET regardless of port number, and other applications (such as Peer to Peer) that may violate a company’s security policies.
200-150 dumps Answer: B,C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
In order to work with live traffic on the Cascade Shark from Cascade Pilot:
A. You MUST connect to the Cascade Shark through its web interface, export packets to a packet capture (pcap) file, then from within Cascade Pilot you can open the pcap file.
B. You MUST use a Cascade Gateway to view packet data on Cascade Shark.
C. You MUST use a Cascade Profiler to view packet data on Cascade Shark.
D. You can simply connect to the Cascade Shark appliance directly from Cascade Pilot provided that proper network communication is available between Cascade Pilot and Cascade Shark.
E. You can simply connect to the Cascade Shark appliance directly from Cascade Pilot provided that a capture job has already been configured from the Cascade Shark Web Interface and proper network communication is available.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 83
An interactive view within Cascade Pilot is:
A. A downloadable customized view from the online Cascade community.
B. Any view that is applied to live devices and dynamically updated.
C. A view that can be created after drill-down from one view to another.
D. Any view that was created by applying a traffic filter.
E. All views within Cascade Pilot are considered interactive views.
200-150 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
A host information on Cascade Profiler report is a series of reports within a report that provides useful information about what is known about a host. The host information report can be run through which of the following mechanisms?
A. Entering the IP address of hostname of the host in the quick report box at the top level GUI page.
B. Right-clicking on any host link from a dashboard or report, and selecting host information.
C. Go to reports –> shortcuts –> built-in –> host information.
D. Selecting the host information Report by option from the advanced traffic reporting tab.
E. All of the above.
F. A, B, and C only.
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
Which of the following are valid Dashboard Content Block Types? (Select 3)
A. Service Health
B. Watched Traffic
C. WAN Utilization
D. Service Map
E. Security Threats
200-150 vce Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 86
Cascade Profiler encrypts data at rest with.
A. the same encryption strength and protocol selected for sending data from Gateways and Sensors to Profiler.
B. always 256bit AES, accept for international customers who are not eligible for encryption.
C. Cascade does not encrypt data while at rest.
D. Configurable under Definitions ? Encryption.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87
Assuming that all product features are implemented and enabled, what are the three default Dashboards? (Select 3)
A. Network Operations Dashboard
B. WAN Optimization Dashboard
C. Internet Access Dashboard
D. Network Security Dashboard
E. Datacenter Utility Dashboard
F. Service Dashboard
200-150 exam Answer: A,D,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 88
How many simultaneous users can access Cascade Profiler?
A. Ten
B. Four
C. Unlimited
D. Twenty
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 89
What syntax is used to define Host Groups within Cascade Profiler?
A. Name followed by list of Ports
B. Name followed by several Subnets
C. Name followed by Subnet
D. Subnet followed by name
E. Name followed by Subnet followed by Port
200-150 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90
Which of the following is a supported alerting mechanism for events?
A. BGP
B. Windows Messenger
C. SMTP
D. IM
E. Skype
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
Which fields are generally available for export using NetFlow technology? (Select 3)
A. Source and Destination IP Address of endstations
B. Source and Destination MAC Address of endstations
C. Source and Destination Hardware Port Numbers of endstations
D. Source and Destination UDP or TCP Port Numbers
E. TCP Flags used
200-150 pdf Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 92
A Watch in Cascade Pilot: (Select 3)
A. Is a graphic object used to show selected and global time windows for the applied View.
B. Can be applied to both live captures and saved pcap files.
C. Is a feature that allows a user to be notified when a specified event occurs on the network.
D. Can send a syslog message when an event is triggered.
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93
A filter can be created in Cascade Pilot:
A. By importing a display or capture filter from Wireshark.
B. By saving the filter applied in a View.
C. Only when you are connected to a Cascade Shark.
D. Only before applying a View.
200-150 vce Answer: B
Explanation:

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 79
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

How many bytes are added to each frame as a result of the configuration?
A. 4-bytes except the native VLAN
B. 8-bytes except the native VLAN
C. 4-bytes including native VLAN
D. 8-bytes including native VLAN
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN. A VLAN tag adds 4 bytes to the frame. Two bytes are used for the tag protocol identifier (TPID), the other two bytes for tag control information (TCI).
QUESTION 80
A network engineer configured a fault-tolerance link on Gigabit Ethernet links G0/1, G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 between two switches using Ethernet port-channel. Which action allows interface G0/1 to always actively forward traffic in the port-channel?
A. Configure G0/1 as half duplex and G0/2 as full duplex.
B. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 1.
C. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 65535.
D. LACP traffic goes through G0/4 because it is the highest interface ID.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A LACP port priority is configured on each port using LACP. The port priority can be configured automatically or through the CLI. LACP uses the port priority with the port number to form the port identifier. The port priority determines which ports should be put in standby mode when there is a hardware limitation that prevents all compatible ports from aggregating. The higher the number, the lower the priority. The valid range is from 1 to 65535. The default is 32768.
QUESTION 81
Which statement about the use of PAgP link aggregation on a Cisco switch that is running Cisco IOS Software is true?
A. PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
B. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
C. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-active, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
D. PAgP modes are off, active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-auto, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. The PAgP modes are explained below.
1. on: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to come up.
2. off: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to remain down.
3. auto: PAgP is running passively. The formation of a channel is desired; however, it is not initiated.
4. desirable: PAgP is running actively. The formation of a channel is desired and ini- tiated. Only the combinations of auto-desirable, desirable-desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. If a device on one side of the channel does not support PAgP, such as a router, the device on the other side must have PAgP set to on.
QUESTION 82
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

Which EtherChannel negotiation protocol is configured on the interface f0/13 f0/15?
A. Link Combination Control Protocol
B. Port Aggregation Protocol
C. Port Combination Protocol
D. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. .
1. on: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to come up.
2. off: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to remain down.
3. auto: PAgP is running passively. The formation of a channel is desired; however, it is not initiated.
4. desirable: PAgP is running actively. The formation of a channel is desired and ini- tiated.
The Link Aggregate Control Protocol (LACP) trunking supports four modes of operation:
On: The link aggregation is forced to be formed without any LACP negotiation .In other words, the switch neither sends the LACP packet nor processes any inbound LACP packet. This is similar to the on state for PAgP.
Off: The link aggregation is not formed. We do not send or understand the LACP packet. This is similar to the off state for PAgP.
Passive: The switch does not initiate the channel but does understand inbound LACP packets. The peer (in active state) initiates negotiation (when it sends out an LACP packet) which we receive and answer, eventually to form the aggregation channel with the peer. This is similar to the auto mode in PAgP.
Active: We can form an aggregate link and initiate the negotiation. The link aggregate is formed if the other end runs in LACP active or passive mode. This is similar to the desir- able mode of PAgP. In this example, we see that fa 0/13, fa0/14, and fa0/15 are all in Port Channel 12, which is operating in desirable mode, which is only a PAgP mode.
QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an EtherChannel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here: Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac):
However, traffic is still slow. Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?

A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug on the switch.
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Since this traffic is coming from PC-1, the source MAC address will always be that of PC-1, and since the load balancing method is source MAC, traffic will only be using one of the port channel links. The load balancing method should be changed to destination MAC, since the web server has two NICs traffic will be load balanced across both MAC addresses.
QUESTION 84
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but not the duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PAgP aids in the automatic creation of EtherChannel links. PAgP packets are sent between EtherChannel-capable ports in order to negotiate the formation of a channel. Some restrictions are deliberately introduced into PAgP. The restrictions are: PAgP does not form a bundle on ports that are configured for dynamic VLANs. PAgP requires that all ports in the channel belong to the same VLAN or are configured as trunk ports. When a bundle already exists and a VLAN of a port is modified, all ports in the bundle are modified to match that VLAN. PAgP does not group ports that operate at different speeds or port duplex. If speed and duplex change when a bundle exists, PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle. PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel. The device on the other side must have PAgP set to on if a device on one side of the channel does not support PAgP, such as a router. Reference: 

QUESTION 85 Which of the following are well-known MTAs?
A. Procmail
B. Sendmail
C. Netscape
D. Pine
E. Qmail
300-115 vce Answer: BE
QUESTION 86 The MX record for a domain is set to: “IN MX 10 mail.company.com”. What additional record types, if
any, are required for the machine mail.company.com?
A. mail.company.com should have a CNAME record
B. mail.company.com should have no other records
C. mail.company.com should have an A record
D. mail.company.com should have both a CNAME and a PTR record
E. mail.company.com should have both a CNAME and an A record
Answer: C
QUESTION 87 Which of the following files are checked and/or modified to restrict POP access to machines only in the domain company.com?
A. /etc/hosts
B. /etc/inetd.conf
C. /etc/services
D. /etc/hosts.allow
E. /etc/hosts.deny
300-115 exam Answer: BDE
QUESTION 88 Which of the following would NOT be an effective way for an e-mail user to prevent spam?
A. Creating a mail filter based on the mail header
B. Creating a mail filter against usernames with irregular capitalization

C. Creating a mail filter against mail from a specific user name
D. Using Procmail
Answer: C
QUESTION 89 Which of the following are reasonable steps for a system administrator to take to reduce the amount of spam received by users of an e-mail system?
A. Only accept e-mail from trusted hosts
B. Only accept inbound e-mail for users in this domain
C. Use the DNS blacklist service to refuse e-mail from known spam sources
D. Disable any accounts which receive spam
E. Filter e-mail headers for known spam subject lines
300-115 dumps Answer: BCE
QUESTION 90 Which of the following is not a valid delivery line for .qmail?
A. # this is a comment
B. |/usr/bin/vacation jsmith
C. &joesmith
D. &[email protected]
E. /home/jsmith/mail/archive
Answer: C
QUESTION 91 What function does OSTYPE in the generic-linux.mc macro provide during Sendmail installation?
A. It optimizes Sendmail to properly use memory allocations specific to an operating system
B. It sets some path names specifically for the operating system
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to for processing
D. It specifies the operating system of connecting mail servers
E. It denies privileges to operating systems with Sendmail security issues
300-115 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 92 What does the divert command in the generic-linux.mc file do?
A. It handles all user .forward files
B. It controls the addition of text from the generic-linux.mc file to the output file or internal text buffers
C. It redirects e-mail to a third party mail server
D. It changes the header information of incoming messages and resends them
E. It copies e-mail locally and sends it to another mail server
Answer: B

QUESTION 93 Which of the following will result if “dnl” is included after each command in the generic-linux.mc file?
A. The text from “dnl” until the end of that line is ignored
B. DNS will not be used in resolving the address to the host mail server
C. Mail can only be sent to servers named in the /etc/hosts and /etc/networks files
D. All commands that do not have “dnl” after each line are applied locally
E. The command on the next line is not executed
300-115 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 94 An e-mail system has been configured to use the DNS Blacklist (DNSBL) service. What additional
step is performed by the system as a result?
A. It checks the user’s e-mail account against the deny spam database Web site
B. It sends a list of known spammers to a recipient requesting the information to be added to their mail filters
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to based on the DNSBL database
D. It keeps track of recipients who requested to be removed from mass mailings
E. It checks the IP of each connection from which it is receiving mail against entries in the DNSBL
database
Answer: E

 

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Question No : 16 – (Topic 1) Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
200-105 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP)
Introduction
VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst series products.

Question No : 17 – (Topic 1) Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
By default, all ports on a new switch belong to VLAN 1 (default & native VLAN). There are also some well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring…) configured by default -> A is not correct. To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router
or Layer 3 switch -> B is correct. VLANs don’t affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct. Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use 192.168.1.0/24 for VLAN 1, 192.168.2.0/24 for VLAN 2 -> D is correct. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the switch look-ups its bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct. We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.

Question No : 18 – (Topic 1) Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
200-105 dumps Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Understanding Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (802.1w)
Port States
There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state.
 RSTP only has 3 port states which are discarding, learning and forwarding. When RSTP has converged there are only 2 port states left: discarding and forwarding.
200-105 dumps
Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E are correct. The command “show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about VLAN 30. We don’t know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct. The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge
priority 32768 -> C is correct. All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type “p2p”, which means Point-to
  point environment – not a shared media -> D is not correct. The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct.
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1) Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
200-105 pdf 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Spanning Tree from PVST+ to Rapid-PVST Migration Configuration Example
Reference 1:
Reference 2:
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.

200-105 dumps
Background Information
802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) has a drawback of slow convergence. Cisco Catalyst switches support three types of STPs, which are PVST+, rapid-PVST+ and MST. PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D standard and includes Cisco proprietary extensions such as BackboneFast, UplinkFast, and PortFast. Rapid-PVST+ is based on IEEE 802.1w
standard and has a faster convergence than 802.1D. RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) natively includes most of the Cisco proprietary enhancements to the 802.1D Spanning Tree, such as BackboneFast and UplinkFast. Rapid-PVST+ has these unique features: Uses Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) version 2 which is backward compatible with the
802.1D STP, which uses BPDU version 0. All the switches generate BPDUs and send out on all the ports every 2 seconds, whereas in 802.1D STP only the root bridge sends the configuration BPDUs.
Port Roles—Root port, designated port, alternate port and backup port.
Port States—Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding.
Port Types—Edge Port (PortFast), Point-to-Point and Shared port.
Rapid-PVST uses RSTP to provide faster convergence. When any RSTP port receives legacy 802.1D BPDU, it falls back to legacy STP and the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.

Question No : 21 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Answer: C
Explanation:
In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has a lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of Switch4) so both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4. Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives from Switch3. A BPDU is superior than another if it has:
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A lower Sending Port ID
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by Switch3 have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID. The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port index). In this case the port priorities are equal because they
use the default value, so Switch4 will compare port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is inferior to Fa0/1, Switch4 will select the port connected with Fa0/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the other port -> Port fa0/11 of Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role)

QUESTION 22:
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of a bus topology network?
A. Difficult to troubleshoot
B. Expensive to implement
C. Attenuation
D. Signal interference
200-105 exam Answer:
QUESTION 23:
Which of the following are advantages of a bus topology?
A. Easy to troubleshoot failures
B. Failures are always limited to a single node
C. Inexpensive to implement
D. No network congestion
Answer:
QUESTION 24:
The acronym CSMA stands for:
A. Call signal multiple access.
B. Carrier sense multiple access.
C. Call signal message active.
D. Carrier sense message active.
200-105 dumps Answer:
QUESTION 25:
Ethernet LANs use which of the following?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/CD
C. Token passing
D. Token bus
Answer:
QUESTION 26:
CSMA/CD is based on which IEEE standard?
A. 802.3
B. 802.4
C. 802.5
D. 802.6
200-105 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 27:
The star topology is different from buses and rings in that:
A. All data flows through a central hub.
B. Data never passes through a single central point.

C. The star topology allows only limited network control.
D. The star topology is harder to expand.
Answer: A
QUESTION 28:
Which of the following can be used to connect nodes to the network in a star topology?
A. Transceivers
B. Multistation access units
C. Switches
D. Access point
200-105 vce Answer:
QUESTION 29:
Which of the following represents a single point of failure in a star topology?
A. Backbone cable
B. Hub
C. Transceiver
D. Nodes
Answer:
QUESTION 30:
Ring topologies almost always use:
A. Token passing.
B. CSMA/CD.
C. CSMA/CA.
D. Token sharing.
200-105 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 31:
Like the physical bus topology, the physical ring topology:
A. Joins a single cable to form a continuous loop.
B. Connects all nodes along a single cable.
C. Uses a central concentrator.

D. Does not broadcast signals.
Answer:
QUESTION 32:
The 802.5 IEEE standard defines the operation of which topology?
A. Token bus
B. Token ring
C. Bus
D. Star
Answer: B
QUESTION 33:
Token ring networks operate according to the rules of which IEEE standard?
A. 802.3
B. 802.4
C. 802.5
D. 802.6
200-105 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 34:
Ethernet 10BaseT is designed to use which physical topology?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Tree
Answer: B
QUESTION 35:
Which of the following topologies is an expansion of the bus topology suitable for broadband transmissions?
A. Ring
B. Star
C. Mesh
D. Tree

200-105 pdf Answer:

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QUESTION 103
Which statement about ZigBee technology is true?
A. It has low power consumption.
B. It is designed only for point-to-point communications.
C. It ranges up to 250 meters.
D. It supports data rates up to 1 and 2 Mb/s.

200-355 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 104
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 105
What three components must be the same on a controller and the RADIUS server when adding a RADIUS
server to a WLC? (Choose three.)
A. Username
B. Shared Secret
C. Index Priority
D. Port Number
E. IP Address
F. Network Mask
200-355 dumps 
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 106
A lightweight AP has been deployed in local mode in a network that consists of 10 wireless LAN controllers
in a single mobility group. The AP has been configured to use primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco
WLCs. Due to a major power failure, all those Cisco WLCs are unavailable.
Which step does the AP take next?
A. The AP reboots and repeatedly attempts to join the configured primary, secondary, and tertiary Cisco
WLCs in that order. The process continues until one of the configured Cisco WLCs is available.
B. The AP attempts to join a Cisco WLC configured as a master controller.
C. The AP attempts to join the Cisco WLC that has the greatest capacity available.
D. The AP state transitions to AP Fallback Mode and continues to provide limited WLAN services (that is,
no new client authentications) until a Cisco WLC is available.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
What AnyConnect module can be used to provide a detailed scan list of the Wi-Fi environment?
A. DART
B. Telemetry
C. Web Security
D. NAM
E. Posture
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
What is the equivalent of 26 dBm in milliwatts?
A. 4 mW
B. 40 mW

C. 100 mW
D. 400 mW
E. 1000 mW
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
What is “Peer Affinity” on an Interceptor appliance?
A. Which parallel Interceptor appliance an Interceptor appliance is most likely to forward traffic to
B. Deciding which of the two serial Interceptors handles more traffic
C. Matching remote Steelhead appliances to a local Steelhead appliance
D. The shipyard from which Riverbed is most likely to ship Interceptor appliances
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 110
Which logging severity levels are supported by the CMC appliance? (Select 4)
A. Emergency
B. Educational
C. Info
D. Notice
E. Critical
200-355 vce 
Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 111
Which user roles and permissions are supported by the CMC appliance? (Select 3)
A. Read-Only
B. Read/Write
C. Write-Only
D. Deny
E. Accept
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 112
How many versions of CMC appliance software images can reside on the CMC simultaneously?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
E. 1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
When registering a Steelhead appliance to the CMC appliance, which of the following options are
available? (Select 4)
A. IP address
B. Serial Number
C. Username
D. License
E. Group
200-355 exam 
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 114
What is the baud-rate of the console port on the CMC appliance?
A. 1200
B. 2400
C. 4800
D. 9600
E. 19200
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
Which of the following configuration policies are supported on the CMC appliance? (Select 4)
A. Security Policy
B. Optimization Policy
C. System Setting Policy
D. License Policy
E. Networking Policy
200-355 dumps 
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 116
Which of the following are configurable in the CMC appliance Jump-Start Wizard? (Select 4)
A. IP address
B. Netmask
C. Steelhead appliance model number
D. Default gateway
E. Administrator password
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 117
What is visible on the CMC appliance home page dashboard? (Select 4)
A. CMC appliance model
B. CMC appliance version
C. Logout
D. Reset
E. User Logged in
200-355 pdf 
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 118
What is the default CMC appliance name resolved by the Steelhead appliance for initial configuration?
A. cmc-riverbed
B. riverbed-cmc
C. cmc.riverbed.nbttech
D. riverbed.cmc
E. riverbedcmc
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 119
Which of the following reports are available on the CMC appliance? (Select 4)
A. Optimized Throughput
B. Traffic Summary
C. Current Connections
D. Connection History
E. Data Store Hit Rate
200-355 vce 
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 120
What parameters are required to add a new Steelhead appliance on the CMC appliance? (Select 2)
A. Hostname
B. IP address
C. Serial number
D. Sport ID
E. User name and password
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 121
When upgrading a Steelhead appliance from the CMC appliance what methodologies can be used? (Select 2)
A. Upgrade from uploaded image
B. Upgrade from the CMC appliance flash
C. Automatic download from support.riverbed.com
D. Upgrade from URL
E. Upgrade from TFTP server
200-355 exam 
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 122
What interface on the CMC appliance is required for the initial configuration?
A. In-path interface
B. AUX interface
C. WAN interface
D. Primary interface
E. LAN interface
200-355 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 123
Which of the following is true regarding the CMC appliance?
A. Can be configured using its default IP address of 192.168.1.1
B. Can be initially set up via the CLI
C. Can be initially setup via the AUX interface
D. Can be initially set up via telnet
E. Both C and D
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-255
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Q&As: 80

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QUESTION: 33
Which of the following types of AP adoption require that DHCP services be enabled on the AP’s native VLAN?
A. Layer 1 Adoption
B. Layer 2 Adoption
C. Layer 3 Adoption
D. Access Layer Adoption
E. Logical Layer Adoption
210-255 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 34
You have just received a call from a customer who explains that the mobile computers on his
WLAN:
– Are associating properly
– Have layer 3 connectivity
– Are NOT reaching a server on the destination network
The IP address of the RFS controller is 192.168.0.2 and the IP address of the remote server is 192.168.2.117. Which of the following, when performed, would allow the mobile computers to reach the destination network?
A. Add the following route: 0.0.0.0/0 192.168.1.1
B. Add the following route: 0.0.0.0/0 192.168.0.1
C. Add the following route: 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.0/24
D. Add the following route: 255.255.255.255/24 192.168.0.1
Answer: C
QUESTION: 35
After the initial deployment of a customer’s WLAN you attempt to verify that test AP Radios 1 and 2 are operational. You have assigned Radio 1 (2.4 GHz) to use the SSID “WLAN1” and Radio 2 (5 GHz) to use the SSID “WLAN2”. You perform a simple site survey using LANPlanner. LANPlanner plots the signal strength footprint of WLAN1 with no problem but WLAN2 does not show up in the LANPlanner heat map display. Based on the Wireless Configuration screen shown in Exhibit B.3.2.02 at the bottom, what are the most likely causes of this condition (select TWO)?

A. The “default” QoS policy is in use.
B. The SSID has been assigned to the wrong VLAN
C. The Broadcast SSID feature has been disabled.
D. The current configuration has not been pushed to the AP. E. The Allow RADIUS Override feature has been disabled.

F. The Answer Broadcast Probes feature has been disabled
210-255 dumps 
Answer: C, F
QUESTION: 36
You have deployed a Motorola WiNG 5 WLAN solution at the site of a new customer. Someone from the IT group of the customer will be designated the platform owner and will need to have the most robust set of administrative rights. To which administrative role would you assign to this individual?
A. Monitor
B. System
C. Network
D. Security
E. Superuser
F. Help Desk
Answer: E
QUESTION: 37
Following the installation of an RFS4000 controller with AP650 APs you use a popular WLAN discovery application to capture and display traffic to and from one of the APs. You notice that the majority of the transmitted frames are being sent at a
very low speed, as shown in image below, even though the 802.11n connection supports a 130 Nbps signaling rate. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
A. Non-unicast traffic is being transmitted at Lowest Configured Basic Rate.
B. A “Tar Pit” style Wireless Denial of Service (DoS) attack is underway from a nearby intruder.
C. Beacons are always transmitted at 1 Mbps. Acknowledgements to the Beacons must be sent at the same speed.
D. An ACL policy has been configured to allow only 1 Mbps traffic, with the exception of Null Data frames, to traverse the Native VLAN.
210-255 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 38
You have just completed the collection of Live RF measurement data using LANPlanner for the purpose of verifying the performance of a newly upgraded WLAN deployment. The customers reason for upgrading the previous system was to support VoWLAN in a multi-tenant office building using Motorola EWP3000 Smartphones. The original installation plan calls for an RSSI of -62 dBm from one primary AP per channel, with co-channel interference from nearby APs at a level of, no greater than, -85 dBm. In order to verify this condition you are checking 2.4 GHz Channel 11 and some additional overlapping channels which seem to have been misconfigured by neighboring WLANs. Using the LANPlanner information shown in the two exhibits at the bottom, which of the following APs satisfies the requirements for a VoWLAN deployment using the prerequisites shown above?

A. 00:14:6A:07:F1:90 in Region 1
B. 00:A0: FS:BB: F6:60 in Region 2
C. 00:14:69:F2:B0:30 in Region 2
D. 00:A0: FS: BB:F6:60 in Region 1
E. 00:14:69:F2:B0:30 in Region 3
Answer: D
QUESTION: 39
After deploying a new 802.11n WLAN you use a popular WLAN Discovery tool to analyze the channel settings being used in the vicinity. Using the information shown in the image below, which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the use of channels in this area?

A. SSID WLAN1a is using 36 MHz channels
B. SSID Zinc is using 20/40 MHz channels 149 and 153
C. MAC address nex-G:6c:32:a2 is using an 802.11b-only reserved channel.
D. MAC address KENDIN:cf:ca:7d is using a channel which is illegal in ETSI nations.
210-255 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 40
You have been asked to cover a long narrow corridor and are determining the types of antennas to install. All of the following antennas are suitable for this location,
EXCEPT:
A. Wall mount Patch Antenna
B. Omni Directional
C. Leaky Feeder
D. Yagi
Answer: A
QUESTION: 41
A customer is looking to install a new Motorola Solutions wireless infrastructure along with purchasing new Motorola Solutions 802.11a/b/g mobile computers for a warehouse. Your account team has recommended the Motorola Solutions RFS6000 with AP650 s because of the latest S02.11n technology. The customer has asked what the benefit would be by putting in an 802.11n wireless infrastructure when they aren’t 
sing 802.11n clients. You are preparing a justification. All of the following are valid responses, EXCEPT:
A. 802.11n is backward compatible to legacy 802.11a/b/g clients.
B. 802.11n provides a larger coverage area for legacy 802.11a/b/g clients at higher data rates (36Mb/s, 54Mb/s).
C. Installing an 802.11n infrastructure provides better TCO and scalability for any future 802.11n clients that are added later.
D. An 802.11n wireless infrastructure automatically upgrades the radios in the mobile computers to 802.11n and allows them to take advantage of all the 802.lln features.
210-255 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 42
You are positioning an AP on the 4th floor of a multi floor building. The site survey indicated that there are concrete floors, a concrete block wall on one side of the room, and a sheetrock wall on the other end of that room. Which of these obstacles will attenuate the signal the most?
A. The sheetrock wall
B. Concrete cinder block wall
C. Concrete floors at each level
D. Depends on how close the AP is to each item
210-255 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 43
After setting up the WLAN according to the site survey, you observe unanticipated RF interference which can be neither eliminated nor avoided. In this situation what could be done to mitigate the effect on throughput?
A. Eliminate all security mechanisms
B. Change the network type to an IBSS
C. Adjust fragmentation to require larger frames
D. Adjust fragmentation to require smaller frames
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION: 92
A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?
A. Project manager is appointed
B. Stakeholders approve the project
C. Project charter is approved
D. Project sponsor approves the project
210-260 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 93
How is the process of collecting requirements defined?
A. Defining and documenting project sponsors’ needs to meet the project objectives
B. Defining and documenting stakeholders’ needs to meet the project objectives
C. Defining and documenting the project teams’ needs to meet the project objectives
D. Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives
Answer: B
QUESTION: 94
Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas?
A. Project risk management
B. Project scope management
C. Project time management
D. Project integration management
210-260 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 95
Which process group can be performed outside the project’s scope of control?

A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Control
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Answer: D
QUESTION: 96
The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Develop Schedule
C. Identify Stakeholders
D. Determine Budget
210-260 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 97
Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Plan Communications
D. Collect Requirements
Answer: B
QUESTION: 98
Which of the following is defined by a project’s life cycle and varies by application area?
A. Product
B. Product-oriented processes
C. Project management process groups
D. Project-oriented processes

210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 99
How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 9
D. 12
Answer: C
QUESTION: 100
Which of the following must be taken into account for every process, even if they are not
explicitly listed as inputs in the process specifications?
A. Organizational processes and procedures and enterprise environmental factors
B. Organizational processes and procedures and corporate knowledge base
C. Organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors
D. Corporate knowledge base and enterprise environmental factors
210-260 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 101
Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Control
D. Closing
Answer: B
QUESTION: 102
A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across all
of the management process groups to formally complete the project?

A. Closing
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 103
Which process group defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the
project was undertaken to achieve?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: C
QUESTION: 104
How many process groups are there according to the PMBOK Guide?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 105
The Monitoring and Controlling process group contains which of the following processes?
A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Identify Stakeholders

Answer: C
QUESTION: 106
Which process group establishes the total scope of a project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 107
Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed?
A. Project team
B. Project manager
C. Project management office
D. Customer or sponsor
Answer: D
QUESTION: 108
Manage Project Team belongs to which knowledge area?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Procurement Management
D. Project Human Resource Management
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 109
Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?

A. Product scope description
B. Project charter
C. Preliminary project scope statement
D. Communications management plan
Answer: A
QUESTION: 110
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how
the project’s scope is managed?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 111
Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution Process?
A. Approved corrective actions
B. Approved contract documentation
C. Work performance information
D. Rejected change requests
Answer: A
QUESTION: 112
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS
and WBS dictionary?
A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan

D. Scope baseline
210-260 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 113
What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and
perform the work of the project?
A. Build vs. buy
B. Expert judgment
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION: 114
The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
A. Schedule management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Resource management plan
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 115
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
B. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project Breakdown Structure (PBS)
Answer: B
QUESTION: 116
What causes replanning of the project scope?
A. Requested changes
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Approved change requests
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 117
Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of
the project work?
A. WBS directory
B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 118
What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to
accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?
A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
B. Work Performance Information
C. Work Package
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 55
While configuring Blue Coat directory, what is an Overlay?
A. A few selected setting used to replace some of the configuration in ProxySG.
B. A snapshot of all the configuration in ProxySG.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
CPL is required when creating which types of policy?
A. Two-Way URL rewrites
B. Policy that utilizes layer guards
C. Policy that involves local users and groups
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Which of the following statements are true about Bandwidth Management Hierarchies and Priorities?
(Choose all that apply)
(a) Child classes can have children of their own.
(b) If no limit is set, packets are sent as soon as they arrive.
(c) Priorities are set to a class to give precedence over other classes.
(d) If there is excess bandwidth, the child class will always get the first opportunity to use it.
A. a, b & c only
B. a, b & d only
C. b, c & d only
D. All of the above
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
Which method of controlling downloads of certain file types has the LOWEST efficiency in terms of
response time, bandwidth use and execution time on ProxySG
A. Apparent Data Type
B. MIME Type
C. File extension
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
Bandwidth minimum does not work in an explicit deployment model.
A. True
B. False
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
Which authentication realm is NOT supported for authenticating administrators to the management
console?
A. IWA
B. Radius

(a) Local configured accounts and password
(b) RADIUS
(c) IWA
(d) TACACS+
A. All of the above
B. a, b & c only
C. a, c & d only
D. a, b & d only
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
If a user can not be derived through the Window SSO realm, then the client will .
A. be prompted with an authentication dialog box to provide credentials.
B. receive an authentication error from the proxy.
C. proceed as an unauthenticated user.
D. receive an authentication form from the proxy to provide credentials.
300-135 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
In which of the following ways can Access Logging be enabled? (Choose all that apply.)
(a) By a CLI command
(b) In the Management Console under Access Logging
(C) By adding another layer to VPM policy
A. a & b only
B. a & c only
C. b & c only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
Which of the following cashing techniques utilize retrieval workers to keep the contents of the cache fresh?
(Choose all that apply.)
(a) Cost-based Deletion
(b) Asynchronous Adaptive Refresh
(c) Popularity Contest
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. All of the above
D. b only
300-135 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
Which server certificate validation errors can be ignored within ProxySG policy? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Untrusted issuer
(b) Host name mismatch
(c) Expiration
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. a & c only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
When configuring Blue Coat Director, how can an administrator be authenticated? (Choose all that apply.)
(a) Local configured accounts and password
(b) RADIUS
(c) IWA
(d) TACACS+
A. All of the above
B. a, b & c only
C. a, c & d only
D. a, b & d only
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Log format variable rs(Content-Type) always refers to Content-type header value sent from the proxySG to
the client.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
Which of the following Health Checks can be defined for a forwarding host? (Choose all that apply)
(a) ICMP
(b) TCP
(C) HTTP
(d) HTTPS
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. c & d only
D. a & d only
E. All of the above
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 68
Which of the following is NOT true about global and per-rule policy tracing?
A. Each object processed by the ProxySG generates an entry in the global policy trace and appears in a
rule-based trace if the object triggers a rule.
B. Global policy tracing may severely affect the performance of a production ProxySG.
C. You can enable global tracing through the Management Console or CLI.
D. You can enable per-rule tracing through the Management Console.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
The ProxySG policy engine allows an administrator to create policy based on any MIME type, File
Extension or File Signature (first bytes in the response body).
A. True
B. False
300-135 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Which of the following access log formats are supported by the ProxySG? (Choose all that apply)
(a) ELFF

(b) SQUID
(c) Websense
(d) NCSA
A. a, b & c only
B. a, b & d only
C. a, c & d only
D. b, c & d only
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 71
By default, what type of authentication challenge will the user-agent receive if the authentication node is
set to AUTO?
A. proxy-ip for explicit and transparent clients
B. proxy for explicit and origin-cookie-redirect for transparent clients
C. proxy for explicit and transparent clients
D. proxy-ip for explicit and origin-ip-redirect for transparent clients
E. proxy for explicit and proxy-ip for transparent
300-135 exam 
Correct Answer: E

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Sep 05, 2017
Q&As: 85

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Question: 3 Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two)
A.access control lists
B.QoS marking
C.Network vMotion
D.port state migration
E.DV Port Groups
200-155 dumps Answer: AB
Question: 4 When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two )
A.Resource Manager
B.Workflow Designer
C.Scheduler
D.Activity Planner
E.Predefined Tasks
Answer: BE
QUESTION: 5.You have a cluster with the SnapshotIQ module licensed. The ability for users to view and access the
“.snapshot” directories can be controlled per protocol. (True/False)
A.True
B.False
200-155 exam Answer:A
QUESTION: 6.The client workstations on your network are configured to use DNS server 10.10.10.1, which is
authoritative for the domain “isilon.com”. You would like to configure SmartConnect with a zone named
“cluster.isilon.com”. Your SmartConnect virtual IP is 10.10.10.100. Which of the following statements is
most accurate in regard to DNS and SmartConnect? (Choose 1)

A.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a delegation (NS) record delegating
“cluster.isilon.com” to the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
B.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a host (A) record resolving “cluster.isilon.com” to
the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
C.In order to utilize SmartConnect, the client workstations must be configured to use 10.10.10.100 as
their DNS server.
D.The SmartConnect service must be configured to use 10.10.10.1 as its DNS server
Answer:A
QUESTION: 7 Which of the following commands can be used to view the status of restripe operations? (Choose 2)
A.”isi status”
B.”isi config”
C.”restripe status”
D.”isi restripe”
200-155 dumps Answer:A D
QUESTION: 8
PRPC best practices dictate that when the number of covered objects under a
work cover exceeds a certain number, a folder should be considered to manage
this collection. What is the number?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 50
Answer: C
QUESTION: 9
Which types of relationships can a work cover and its covered items have?
(Choose two.)
A. One-to-One
B. One-to-Many
C. Many-to-One
D. Many-to-Many
200-155 pdf Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 10
Split-Join shapes are used to split a single work object into multiple work objects
and execute parallel flows on each new work object.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION: 11 Application guardrails recommend that developers.
A. Create Java steps in Activities
B. Adopt an interactive approach
C. Calculate and edit procedurally
D. Design intent-driven processes
E. Build for Change(r)
200-155 vce Answer: B, D, E
QUESTION: 12
Embedded pages cannot be nested in other embedded pages.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION: 13
A local list is defined for a property. Which HTML property rule is used to create
a selection list for this property.
A. PromptFieldValueLocalized
B. GetLocalizedValue
C. PromptSelect
D. SmartPrompt
200-155 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 14
Which property mode may use a non-numeric subscript?
A. Java Object
B. Single Value
C. Page Group
D. Page List
Answer: C
QUESTION: 15
Review the following clipboard page.

If pyWorkPage is considered the primary page of an activity, what is the best
practice way to identify the property reference to ClaimAmount in the PastClaims
page?
A. PastClaims.ClaimAmount(1)
B. .PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
C. pyWorkPage.PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
D. .ClaimAmount
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 16
Review the following screen shot:

In the Miscellaneous Items section, the user can enter several items (name/value
pairs). Which type of property is used to display the list of items?
A. Page
B. Page List
C. Single Value
D. Value List
Answer: B
QUESTION: 17
Which of the following statements must be true when defining classes from which
data pages are created?
A. The class must derive from the Data- class
B. The class cannot belong to a RuleSet that also contains work classes
C. The class must be abstract
D. The class must contain a single value property that defines a unique key
200-155 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 18
Which two of the following statements are correct regarding the use of the Quick
Create option when adding a new property? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used to create Page and Page List properties as well as Single Value
properties
B. The Property cannot be subsequently updated
C. The Property type must be chosen when completing the New Property window
D. After clicking Quick Create, the Property form does not appear
Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 19
Which of the following tools can be used to create one or more properties with a
common Applies To class?

A. Application Explorer
B. Define Property Wizard
C. PAL
D. Class Explorer
200-155 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 20
Page List properties typically reference a class derived — directly or indirectly
— from which superclass?
A. Data
B.Work
C.Embed
D.Index
Answer: A
QUESTION: 21
Why do Pegasystems best practices suggest limiting flow rules to 15
SmartShapes? (Excluding Connectors, Notify, Comment, Pool, Swimlane, and
Router shapes)
A. Flows with more than 15 shapes cannot be printed
B. More than 15 SmartShapes in one flow rule may result in performance issues
C. In order to improve readability, maintainability, and ease in traceability when
debugging the application processes
D. Flows with more than 15 SmartShapes cannot be updated
200-155 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 22
Validate rules may be specified in which one of the following rule types to
validate the properties displayed on the user interface?
A. Flow Action
B. Section
C. Harness

D. Flow
Answer: A
QUESTION: 23
Which standard harness rule is used to display the Take Action options available
to the user responsible for processing the work object assignment?
A. Review
B. Perform
C. Confirm
D. Reopen
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 24
When a section is updated, all Harness rules using that Section rule must be
opened and saved.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION: 25
A Property has been added into a Section rule. The input box for that Property
should only be displayed when a clipboard Property is set to a particular value.
On the Conditions tab of the Cell Properties panel, how should the Visible field
be set?
A. If Not Blank
B. If Not Zero
C. Other Condition (referencing a Decision Tree rule)
D. Other Condition (referencing a When Condition rule) E. Always
200-155 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 26
When following PRPC best practices, which artifact is completed prior to running
the Application Accelerator?
A. Enterprise Data Model
B. Application Profile
C. Class Structure Diagram
D. User Interface Design Review
Answer: B
QUESTION: 27
Which standard Harness rule is displayed as read-only and does not allow user
input?
A. Review
B. New
C. Perform
D. Reopen
200-155 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 28
Which two statements are true about Harnesses and Sections? (Choose two.)
A. Each Harness contains the same three standard Section rules
B. Sections may contain multiple Harnesses
C. Harnesses and the sections they contain do not need to be built in the same
class
D. Harnesses may contain multiple Sections
Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 29
Which of the following standard presentation formats are available for screen
flow screens? (Choose three.)

A. Screen with breadcrumb controls at the bottom
B. An interactive flow diagram with linked assignments
C. Tabbed screen display
D. Tree Navigation
200-155 exam Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 30
Buttons can be configured on Harnesses that run custom Activities.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 31
A Section rule can be embedded in another Section rule.
A. True
B. False
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 32
Which of the following standard harness rules is typically referenced in the
Process tab of the Flow rule?
A. Review
B. New
C. Perform
D. Reopen
Answer: B
QUESTION: 33
Which of the following standard Section rules is contained in the New and
Perform harnesses and displays general work object fields?
A. Core
B. CoreSummary
C. GeneralSummary
D. GeneralHeader
200-155 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 34
A Local Action can be presented in a pop-up modal window.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
When using the Application Document wizard, .
A. The default Pega template must be used to preserve compliance
B. The default Pega template can be customized in Word
C. There is no Word template; the document is auto-created in PRPC
D. The default Pega template is divided into customizable and non-customizable sections
200-155 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 36
Two or more comparisons can be placed into a single row in a Decision Table
rule using multiple “OR” conditions.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
QUESTION: 37
Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel.
A. True
B. False
200-155 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 38
Which of the following rule types can be used to evaluate multiple property
values and, as a result, return a text value defined in the rule?
A. Decision Tree
B. Constraints
C. When Condition
D. Validate
Answer: A

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