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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION: 92
A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?
A. Project manager is appointed
B. Stakeholders approve the project
C. Project charter is approved
D. Project sponsor approves the project
210-260 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 93
How is the process of collecting requirements defined?
A. Defining and documenting project sponsors’ needs to meet the project objectives
B. Defining and documenting stakeholders’ needs to meet the project objectives
C. Defining and documenting the project teams’ needs to meet the project objectives
D. Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives
Answer: B
QUESTION: 94
Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas?
A. Project risk management
B. Project scope management
C. Project time management
D. Project integration management
210-260 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 95
Which process group can be performed outside the project’s scope of control?
A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Control
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Answer: D
QUESTION: 96
The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Develop Schedule
C. Identify Stakeholders
D. Determine Budget
210-260 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 97
Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Plan Communications
D. Collect Requirements
Answer: B
QUESTION: 98
Which of the following is defined by a project’s life cycle and varies by application area?
A. Product
B. Product-oriented processes
C. Project management process groups
D. Project-oriented processes
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 99
How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 9
D. 12
Answer: C
QUESTION: 100
Which of the following must be taken into account for every process, even if they are not
explicitly listed as inputs in the process specifications?
A. Organizational processes and procedures and enterprise environmental factors
B. Organizational processes and procedures and corporate knowledge base
C. Organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors
D. Corporate knowledge base and enterprise environmental factors
210-260 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 101
Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Control
D. Closing
Answer: B
QUESTION: 102
A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across all
of the management process groups to formally complete the project?
A. Closing
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 103
Which process group defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the
project was undertaken to achieve?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: C
QUESTION: 104
How many process groups are there according to the PMBOK Guide?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 105
The Monitoring and Controlling process group contains which of the following processes?
A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Identify Stakeholders
Answer: C
QUESTION: 106
Which process group establishes the total scope of a project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 107
Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed?
A. Project team
B. Project manager
C. Project management office
D. Customer or sponsor
Answer: D
QUESTION: 108
Manage Project Team belongs to which knowledge area?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Procurement Management
D. Project Human Resource Management
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 109
Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?
A. Product scope description
B. Project charter
C. Preliminary project scope statement
D. Communications management plan
Answer: A
QUESTION: 110
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how
the project’s scope is managed?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 111
Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution Process?
A. Approved corrective actions
B. Approved contract documentation
C. Work performance information
D. Rejected change requests
Answer: A
QUESTION: 112
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS
and WBS dictionary?
A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline
210-260 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 113
What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and
perform the work of the project?
A. Build vs. buy
B. Expert judgment
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION: 114
The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
A. Schedule management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Resource management plan
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 115
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
B. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project Breakdown Structure (PBS)
Answer: B
QUESTION: 116
What causes replanning of the project scope?
A. Requested changes
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Approved change requests
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 117
Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of
the project work?
A. WBS directory
B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 118
What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to
accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?
A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
B. Work Performance Information
C. Work Package
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer: D

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[Free Cisco Dumps&PDF] Real Cisco 300-135 Dumps PDF Exam Tests with 100% Pass Rate Youtube Study for Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 55
While configuring Blue Coat directory, what is an Overlay?
A. A few selected setting used to replace some of the configuration in ProxySG.
B. A snapshot of all the configuration in ProxySG.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
CPL is required when creating which types of policy?
A. Two-Way URL rewrites
B. Policy that utilizes layer guards
C. Policy that involves local users and groups
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Which of the following statements are true about Bandwidth Management Hierarchies and Priorities?
(Choose all that apply)
(a) Child classes can have children of their own.
(b) If no limit is set, packets are sent as soon as they arrive.
(c) Priorities are set to a class to give precedence over other classes.
(d) If there is excess bandwidth, the child class will always get the first opportunity to use it.
A. a, b & c only
B. a, b & d only
C. b, c & d only
D. All of the above
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
Which method of controlling downloads of certain file types has the LOWEST efficiency in terms of
response time, bandwidth use and execution time on ProxySG
A. Apparent Data Type
B. MIME Type
C. File extension
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
Bandwidth minimum does not work in an explicit deployment model.
A. True
B. False
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
Which authentication realm is NOT supported for authenticating administrators to the management
console?
A. IWA
B. Radius
(a) Local configured accounts and password
(b) RADIUS
(c) IWA
(d) TACACS+
A. All of the above
B. a, b & c only
C. a, c & d only
D. a, b & d only
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
If a user can not be derived through the Window SSO realm, then the client will .
A. be prompted with an authentication dialog box to provide credentials.
B. receive an authentication error from the proxy.
C. proceed as an unauthenticated user.
D. receive an authentication form from the proxy to provide credentials.
300-135 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
In which of the following ways can Access Logging be enabled? (Choose all that apply.)
(a) By a CLI command
(b) In the Management Console under Access Logging
(C) By adding another layer to VPM policy
A. a & b only
B. a & c only
C. b & c only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
Which of the following cashing techniques utilize retrieval workers to keep the contents of the cache fresh?
(Choose all that apply.)
(a) Cost-based Deletion
(b) Asynchronous Adaptive Refresh
(c) Popularity Contest
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. All of the above
D. b only
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
Which server certificate validation errors can be ignored within ProxySG policy? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Untrusted issuer
(b) Host name mismatch
(c) Expiration
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. a & c only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
When configuring Blue Coat Director, how can an administrator be authenticated? (Choose all that apply.)
(a) Local configured accounts and password
(b) RADIUS
(c) IWA
(d) TACACS+
A. All of the above
B. a, b & c only
C. a, c & d only
D. a, b & d only
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Log format variable rs(Content-Type) always refers to Content-type header value sent from the proxySG to
the client.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
Which of the following Health Checks can be defined for a forwarding host? (Choose all that apply)
(a) ICMP
(b) TCP
(C) HTTP
(d) HTTPS
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. c & d only
D. a & d only
E. All of the above
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 68
Which of the following is NOT true about global and per-rule policy tracing?
A. Each object processed by the ProxySG generates an entry in the global policy trace and appears in a
rule-based trace if the object triggers a rule.
B. Global policy tracing may severely affect the performance of a production ProxySG.
C. You can enable global tracing through the Management Console or CLI.
D. You can enable per-rule tracing through the Management Console.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
The ProxySG policy engine allows an administrator to create policy based on any MIME type, File
Extension or File Signature (first bytes in the response body).
A. True
B. False
300-135 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Which of the following access log formats are supported by the ProxySG? (Choose all that apply)
(a) ELFF
(b) SQUID
(c) Websense
(d) NCSA
A. a, b & c only
B. a, b & d only
C. a, c & d only
D. b, c & d only
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 71
By default, what type of authentication challenge will the user-agent receive if the authentication node is
set to AUTO?
A. proxy-ip for explicit and transparent clients
B. proxy for explicit and origin-cookie-redirect for transparent clients
C. proxy for explicit and transparent clients
D. proxy-ip for explicit and origin-ip-redirect for transparent clients
E. proxy for explicit and proxy-ip for transparent
300-135 exam Correct Answer: E

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[Free Cisco Dumps&PDF] Most Reliable Cisco 200-155 DCICT Dumps Exam Video Questions With Accurate Answers (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Sep 05, 2017
Q&As: 85

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Question: 3 Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two)
A.access control lists
B.QoS marking
C.Network vMotion
D.port state migration
E.DV Port Groups
200-155 dumps Answer: AB
Question: 4 When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two )
A.Resource Manager
B.Workflow Designer
C.Scheduler
D.Activity Planner
E.Predefined Tasks
Answer: BE
QUESTION: 5.You have a cluster with the SnapshotIQ module licensed. The ability for users to view and access the
“.snapshot” directories can be controlled per protocol. (True/False)
A.True
B.False
200-155 exam Answer:A
QUESTION: 6.The client workstations on your network are configured to use DNS server 10.10.10.1, which is
authoritative for the domain “isilon.com”. You would like to configure SmartConnect with a zone named
“cluster.isilon.com”. Your SmartConnect virtual IP is 10.10.10.100. Which of the following statements is
most accurate in regard to DNS and SmartConnect? (Choose 1)
A.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a delegation (NS) record delegating
“cluster.isilon.com” to the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
B.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a host (A) record resolving “cluster.isilon.com” to
the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
C.In order to utilize SmartConnect, the client workstations must be configured to use 10.10.10.100 as
their DNS server.
D.The SmartConnect service must be configured to use 10.10.10.1 as its DNS server
Answer:A
QUESTION: 7 Which of the following commands can be used to view the status of restripe operations? (Choose 2)
A.”isi status”
B.”isi config”
C.”restripe status”
D.”isi restripe”
200-155 dumps Answer:A D
QUESTION: 8
PRPC best practices dictate that when the number of covered objects under a
work cover exceeds a certain number, a folder should be considered to manage
this collection. What is the number?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 50
Answer: C
QUESTION: 9
Which types of relationships can a work cover and its covered items have?
(Choose two.)
A. One-to-One
B. One-to-Many
C. Many-to-One
D. Many-to-Many
200-155 pdf Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 10
Split-Join shapes are used to split a single work object into multiple work objects
and execute parallel flows on each new work object.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION: 11 Application guardrails recommend that developers.
A. Create Java steps in Activities
B. Adopt an interactive approach
C. Calculate and edit procedurally
D. Design intent-driven processes
E. Build for Change(r)
200-155 vce Answer: B, D, E
QUESTION: 12
Embedded pages cannot be nested in other embedded pages.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION: 13
A local list is defined for a property. Which HTML property rule is used to create
a selection list for this property.
A. PromptFieldValueLocalized
B. GetLocalizedValue
C. PromptSelect
D. SmartPrompt
200-155 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 14
Which property mode may use a non-numeric subscript?
A. Java Object
B. Single Value
C. Page Group
D. Page List
 Answer: C
QUESTION: 15
Review the following clipboard page.
If pyWorkPage is considered the primary page of an activity, what is the best
practice way to identify the property reference to ClaimAmount in the PastClaims
page?
A. PastClaims.ClaimAmount(1)
B. .PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
C. pyWorkPage.PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
D. .ClaimAmount
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 16
Review the following screen shot:
In the Miscellaneous Items section, the user can enter several items (name/value
pairs). Which type of property is used to display the list of items?
A. Page
B. Page List
C. Single Value
D. Value List
Answer: B
QUESTION: 17
Which of the following statements must be true when defining classes from which
data pages are created?
A. The class must derive from the Data- class
B. The class cannot belong to a RuleSet that also contains work classes
C. The class must be abstract
D. The class must contain a single value property that defines a unique key
200-155 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 18
Which two of the following statements are correct regarding the use of the Quick
Create option when adding a new property? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used to create Page and Page List properties as well as Single Value
properties
B. The Property cannot be subsequently updated
C. The Property type must be chosen when completing the New Property window
D. After clicking Quick Create, the Property form does not appear
Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 19
Which of the following tools can be used to create one or more properties with a
common Applies To class?
A. Application Explorer
B. Define Property Wizard
C. PAL
D. Class Explorer
200-155 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 20
Page List properties typically reference a class derived — directly or indirectly
— from which superclass?
A. Data
B.Work
C.Embed
D.Index
Answer: A
QUESTION: 21
Why do Pegasystems best practices suggest limiting flow rules to 15
SmartShapes? (Excluding Connectors, Notify, Comment, Pool, Swimlane, and
Router shapes)
A. Flows with more than 15 shapes cannot be printed
B. More than 15 SmartShapes in one flow rule may result in performance issues
C. In order to improve readability, maintainability, and ease in traceability when
debugging the application processes
D. Flows with more than 15 SmartShapes cannot be updated
200-155 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 22
Validate rules may be specified in which one of the following rule types to
validate the properties displayed on the user interface?
A. Flow Action
B. Section
C. Harness
D. Flow
Answer: A
QUESTION: 23
Which standard harness rule is used to display the Take Action options available
to the user responsible for processing the work object assignment?
A. Review
B. Perform
C. Confirm
D. Reopen
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 24
When a section is updated, all Harness rules using that Section rule must be
opened and saved.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION: 25
A Property has been added into a Section rule. The input box for that Property
should only be displayed when a clipboard Property is set to a particular value.
On the Conditions tab of the Cell Properties panel, how should the Visible field
be set?
A. If Not Blank
B. If Not Zero
C. Other Condition (referencing a Decision Tree rule)
D. Other Condition (referencing a When Condition rule) E. Always
200-155 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 26
When following PRPC best practices, which artifact is completed prior to running
the Application Accelerator?
A. Enterprise Data Model
B. Application Profile
C. Class Structure Diagram
D. User Interface Design Review
Answer: B
QUESTION: 27
Which standard Harness rule is displayed as read-only and does not allow user
input?
A. Review
B. New
C. Perform
D. Reopen
200-155 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 28
Which two statements are true about Harnesses and Sections? (Choose two.)
A. Each Harness contains the same three standard Section rules
B. Sections may contain multiple Harnesses
C. Harnesses and the sections they contain do not need to be built in the same
class
D. Harnesses may contain multiple Sections
Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 29
Which of the following standard presentation formats are available for screen
flow screens? (Choose three.)
A. Screen with breadcrumb controls at the bottom
B. An interactive flow diagram with linked assignments
C. Tabbed screen display
D. Tree Navigation
200-155 exam Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 30
Buttons can be configured on Harnesses that run custom Activities.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 31
A Section rule can be embedded in another Section rule.
A. True
B. False
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 32
Which of the following standard harness rules is typically referenced in the
Process tab of the Flow rule?
A. Review
B. New
C. Perform
D. Reopen
Answer: B
QUESTION: 33
Which of the following standard Section rules is contained in the New and
Perform harnesses and displays general work object fields?
A. Core
B. CoreSummary
C. GeneralSummary
D. GeneralHeader
200-155 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 34
A Local Action can be presented in a pop-up modal window.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
When using the Application Document wizard, .
A. The default Pega template must be used to preserve compliance
B. The default Pega template can be customized in Word
C. There is no Word template; the document is auto-created in PRPC
D. The default Pega template is divided into customizable and non-customizable sections
200-155 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 36
Two or more comparisons can be placed into a single row in a Decision Table
rule using multiple “OR” conditions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 37
Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel.
A. True
B. False
200-155 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 38
Which of the following rule types can be used to evaluate multiple property
values and, as a result, return a text value defined in the rule?
A. Decision Tree
B. Constraints
C. When Condition
D. Validate
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written v5.1
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 732

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps

Which two statements about the given NetFlow configuration are
true?(Choose two)
A. It supports both IPv4 and IPv6 flows.
B. It uses the default port to send flows to the exporter.
C. It supports only IPv6 flows.
D. It supports only IPv4 flows.
E. It supports a maximum of 2048 entres.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 2
Under which two circumstances is IPsec transport mode appropriate ? (Choose two)
A. When both hosts are behind IPsec peers.
B. When the hosts are transmitting router management traffic.
C. When only one host is behind an IPsec peer.
D. When only IP header encryption is needed.
E. When IPsec peers are the source and the destination of the traffic.
F. When only IP header authentication is needed.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the output aretrue?(Choose two)
400-101 dumps

A. BFD last failed 476ms ago on interface GigabitEthernet 0/3.
B. BGP on RT1 has negotiated the BFD capability with its peer.
C. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using ICMP.
D. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using UDP.
E. BFD is active for BGP on RT1
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which two statements about TCP MSS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The two endpoints in a TCP connection report their MSS values to one another.
B. It operates at Layer 3.
C. MSS values are sent in TCP SYN packets
D. It sets the maximum amount of data that a host sends in an individual datagram
E. It sets the minimum amount of data that a host accepts in an individual datagram
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps

Which traffic gets set to AF41 by the marking policy on interface
GigabitEthernet0/0
A. Only traffic matching access-list streaming
B. No traffic gets set to AF41
C. Any traffic matching access-list tp-rooms and access-list streaming
D. Only traffic matching access-list tp-rooms
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which IPv6 first hop security feature blocks traffic sourced form ipv6 address that are outside the prefix
gleaned from router advertised
A. IPv6 source guard
B. IPv6 DHCP guard
C. IPv6 RA guard
D. IPv6 prefix guard
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which two characteristics of an loT network are true ? (Choose two)
A. loT networks must be designed for low-powered devices
B. loT network are 100% reliable.
C. The transmission rate in an loT network is consistent.
D. loT networks are bandwidth constrained.
E. loT networks use IS-IS for routing.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Into which two pieces of information does the LISP protocol split the device identity?(Choose two)
A. Enterprise Identifier
B. LISP ID
C. Resource Location
D. Device ID
E. Routing Locator
F. Endpoint Identifier
Correct Answer: EF
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which interior gateway protocol is based on open standards, uses a shortest-path first algorithm , provides
native protocols, and operates at the data link layer?
A. IS-IS
B. EIGRP
C. BGP
D. OSPF
400-101 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which option is an incorrect design consideration when deploying OSPF areas?
A. area 0 – area 2-MPLS VPN superbackbone – area 1
B. area 2 – area 0 MPLS VPN backbone – area 1
C. area 1 – MPLS VPN backbone – area 2
D. area I – area 0 – MPLS VPN backbone – area 0 – area 2
E. area 1-MPLS VPN backbone-area 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which two platforms provide hypervisor virtualization?(choose two)
A. Xen
B. Docker
C. KVM
D. OpenStack
E. DevStack
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which encryption algorithm is enabled by the Cisco IOS command service password-encryption?
A. Cisco Type-7
B. Cisco Type-5
C. TKIP
D. MD5
E. Cisco AES
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps

Which kind of ICMPv6 packet is shownin the output?
A. Neighbor advertisement
B. Time exceeded
C. Neighbor soliciation
D. Router advertisement
E. Router discovery
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps

When R2 attempted to copy a file the TFTP server, it received this error messagE. When action can you
take to correct the problem?
A. configure the ip tftp source-interface FaO/1 command on R2
B. configure the ip tftp source-interface FaO/1 command on R1
C. configure the ip tftp source-interface LoopbackO command on R2
D. configure the ip tftp source-interface LoopbackO command on RI
E. Change the access-list configuration on R1 to access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
A packet from network 10.0.1.0/24 destined for network 10.0.2.0/24 arrives at Rl on interface GiO/0, but the
router drops the packet instead of transmitting it out interface Gi0/1.
400-101 dumps

Which feature that is configured on R1 can cause this problem?
A. UDLC
B. split horizon
C. uRPF
D. spanning tree
400-101 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Exhibit:
400-101 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting an issue with a blocked switch port. you find this error in the
switch log. Which action should you take first to locate the problem?
A. Execute the show interface command to check FastEthernet 0/1
B. Check the attached switch for a BPDU filter
C. Test the link for unidirectional failures.
D. Check the attached switch for an interface configuration issue.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Drag and drop the BGP attribute on the left to the correct category on the right.
Select and Place:
400-101 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
400-101 dumps

QUESTION 18
Drag and drop the NAT operations on the left into the correct sequential order on the right.
Select and Place:
400-101 dumps

400-101 dumps Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Drag and drop the EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the router on the
right.
Select and Place:
400-101 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Drag and drop the MPLS term on the left to the function it performs on the right.
Select and Place:
400-101 dumps

400-101 exam Correct Answer:
400-101 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Drag and drop each IPv6 neighbor discovery message type on the left to the corresponding description on
the right.
Select and Place:

400-101 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-101 dumps

400-101 dumps Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
What is the main function of VRF-lite?
A. To segreagate multiple routing tables on a single device.
B. To connect different autonomous systems together to share routes.
C. To allow device to use lables to make layer 2 path decisions.
D. To route IPv6 traffic across an IPv4 backbone.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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