Microsoft

New AZ-800 Dumps And Practice Questions Get You Through Quickly

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions.

What is the method of the AZ-800 exam, how you prepare strongly determines how quickly you succeed in the Microsoft AZ-800 exam. It is recommended that you use here new AZ-800 dumps practice questions.

Download new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 153+ https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-800.html (pdf+vce) to get you quickly past the Administering Windows Server Hybrid Core Infrastructure exam.

The AZ-800 exam will be updated on January 29, 2024

This message all the more means that you need new AZ-800 dumps practice questions to prepare for the exam, remember, it must be new, outdated AZ-800 exam questions are useless.

Back to the topic, here is the focus on the new changes in the exam:

new changes in the AZ-800 exam 01
new changes in the AZ-800 exam 02

New AZ-800 exam new materials to share:

It is divided into document mode

  • Study guide for Exam AZ-801: Configuring Windows Server Hybrid Advanced Services
  • Exam AZ-800: Administering Windows Server Hybrid Core Infrastructure – Certifications
  • Exam AZ-801: Configuring Windows Server Hybrid Advanced Services – Certifications
  • Microsoft Certified: Windows Server Hybrid Administrator Associate – Certifications

It is divided into video modes

  1. https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-800-deploy-and-manage-active-directory-domain-services-as-ds-in-on-premises-and-cloud-environments-segment-1-of-5
  2. https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-800-manage-windows-servers-and-workloads-in-a-hybrid-environment-segment-2-of-5
  3. https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-800-manage-virtual-machines-and-containers-segment-3-of-5
  4. https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-800-implement-and-manage-an-on-premises-and-hybrid-networking-infrastructure-segment-4-of-5
  5. https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-800-manage-storage-and-file-services-segment-5-of-5

It is divided into book mode

All three are common modes and you can choose your preferred one to take the AZ-800 exam.

Share new AZ-800 dumps some free AZ-800 practice questions

Come from: Pass4itSure
Number of Questions: 15/153
Relevant certification: Microsoft

Question 1:

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest. The forest contains three Active Directory sites named Site1, Site2, and Site3. Each site contains two domain controllers. The sites are connected by using

DEFAULTIPSITELINK.

You open a new branch office that contains only client computers.

You need to ensure that the client computers in the new office are primarily authenticated by the domain controllers in Site1.

Solution: You create a new site named Site4 and associate Site4 to DEFAULTSITELINK.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

You deploy a single-domain Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest named contoso.com.

You deploy a server to the domain and configure the server to run a service.

You need to ensure that the service can use a group-managed service account (gMSA) to authenticate.

Which three PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 2

Correct Answer:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 2-2

Question 3:

You need to meet the technical requirements for Server1. Which users can currently perform the required tasks?

A. Admin1 only.

B. Admin3 only.

C. Admin1 and Admin3 only.

D. Admin1, Admin2 and Admin3.

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

You need to use the principle of least privilege.

Choose a solution to meet the technical requirements of User1.

A. Create a delegation on contoso.com.

B. Create a delegation on OU3.

C. Add Users1 to the Server Operators group in contoso.com.

D. Add Users1 to the Account Operators group on contoso.com.

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

You need to meet the technical requirements for User1. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. What should you do?

A. Add Users1 to the Server Operators group in contoso.com.

B. Create a delegation on contoso.com.

C. Add Users1 to the Account Operators group on contoso.com.

D. Create a delegation on OU3.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/ad-ds/plan/delegating-administration-of-account-ous-and-resource-ous

Question 6:

HOTSPOT

You have a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server and contains the volumes shown in the following table.

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 6

On which volumes can you use BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) and disk quotas? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 6-2

Correct Answer:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 6-3

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/storage/refs/refs-overview

Question 7:

You have servers that have the DNS Server role installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 7

All the client computers in the New York office use Server2 as the DNS server.

You need to configure name resolution in the New York office to meet the following requirements:

1. Ensure that the client computers in New York can resolve names from contoso.com.

2. Ensure that Server2 forwards all DNS queries for internet hosts to 131. 107.100.200.

The solution must NOT require modifications to Server1.

Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a forwarder

B. a conditional forwarder

C. a delegation

D. a secondary zone

E. a reverse lookup zone

Correct Answer: AB

A conditional forwarder is required for contoso.com.

A forwarder is required for all other domains.

When you have a conditional forwarder and a forwarder configured, the conditional forwarder will be used for the specified domain.

You could use a secondary zone for contoso.com but that would require a configuration change on Server1.

Question 8:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure subscription named sub1 and 500 on-premises virtual machines that run Windows Server.

You plan to onboard the on-premises virtual machines to Azure Arc by running the Azure Arc deployment script.

You need to create an identity that will be used by the script to authenticate access to sub1. The solution must use the principle of least privilege.

How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 8

Correct Answer:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 8-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-arc/servers/onboard-service-principal

Question 9:

You need to configure remote administration to meet the security requirements. What should you use?

A. an Azure Bastion host

B. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)

C. the Remote Desktop extension for Azure Cloud Services

D. just in time (JIT) VM Access

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/defender-for-cloud/just-in-time-access-usage?tabs=jit-config-asc%2Cjit-request-asc

Question 10:

DRAG DROP

You have a server named Server1 that has Windows Admin Center installed. The certificate used by Windows Admin Center was obtained from a certification authority (CA).

The certificate expires.

You need to replace the certificate.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 10

Correct Answer:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 10-2

Reference: https://www.starwindsoftware.com/blog/change-the-windows-admin-center-certificate

Question 11:

You are planning the implementation of Azure Arc to support the planned changes.

You need to configure the environment to support configuration management policies.

What should you do?

A. Hybrid Azure AD joins all the servers.

B. Create a hybrid runbook worker for Azure Automation.

C. Deploy the Azure Connected Machine agent to all the servers.

D. Deploy the Azure Monitor agent to all the servers.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-arc/servers/plan-at-scale-deployment

Question 12:

DRAG DROP

You have an Azure subscription. The subscription contains a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server. VM1 contains a 128-GB operating system disk.

You need to increase the size of volume C on VM1 to 250 GB.

Which four actions should you perform in sequence?

To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 12

Correct Answer:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 12-2

How to expand virtual hard disks attached to a Windows virtual machine

You may need to expand the OS disk if you\’re supporting a legacy application that installs components on the OS disk or if you\’re migrating a physical PC or VM from on-premises that has a larger OS disk.

Step 1: Stop VM1.

Resize a managed disk by using PowerShell

1. Stop the VM before resizing the disk:

Stop-AzVM -ResourceGroupName $rgName -Name $vmName

Step 2: Resize the operating system disk.

2. Obtain a reference to the managed OS disk. Set the size of the managed OS disk to the desired value and update the Disk:

$disk= Get-AzDisk -ResourceGroupName $rgName -DiskName $diskName $disk.DiskSizeGB = 1023 Update-AzDisk -ResourceGroupName $rgName -Disk $disk -DiskName $disk.Name

Step 3: Start VM1.

3. Updating the VM might take a few seconds. When the command finishes executing, restart the VM:

Start-AzVM -ResourceGroupName $rgName -Name $vmName

Step 4: Resize Volume C.

Expand the volume in the operating system

When you\’ve expanded the disk for the VM, you need to go into the OS and expand the volume to encompass the new space.

Reference: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/expand-os-disk

Question 13:

DRAG DROP

Your network contains a single domain Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory site.

You plan to deploy a read-only domain controller (RODC) to a new data center on a server named Server1. A user named User1 is a member of the local Administrators group on Server1.

You need to recommend a deployment plan that meets the following requirements:

1. Ensures that a user named User1 can perform the RODC installation on Server1

2. Ensures that Server1 is in a new site named RemoteSite1

3. Uses the principle of least privilege

Which three actions should you recommend performing in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 13

Correct Answer:

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 13-2

Step 1: Pre-create an RODC account.

You can deploy RODC using the Staged feature. It consists of pre-creating the RODC computer account in the ADUC console and basic setup.

Step 2: Create a site and a subnet

Step 3: Instruct User1 to run the Active Directory Domain Services installation Wizard on Server1.

The Domain Controller Options page also enables you to choose the appropriate Active Directory logical site name from the forest configuration. By default, it selects the site with the most correct subnet. If there is only one site, it selects that site automatically.

Important:

If the server does not belong to an Active Directory subnet and there is more than one Active Directory site, nothing is selected and the Next button is unavailable until you choose a site from the list.

Incorrect:

* Add User1 to the Contoso\Administrators group.

This is against the principle of least privilege.

Reference:

https://woshub.com/deploying-read-domain-controller-windows-server-2016/

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/ad-ds/deploy/rodc/install-a-windows-server-2012-active-directory-read-only-domain-controller–rodc—level-200

Question 14:

You need to configure the Group Policy settings to ensure that the Azure Virtual Desktop session hosts meet the security requirements. What should you configure?

A. loopback processing in GPO4

B. security filtering for the link of GPO1

C. loopback processing in GPO1

D. The enforced property for the link of GPO4

E. the Enforced property for the link of GPO1

F. security filtering for the link of GPO4

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

SIMULATION You need to collect errors from the System event log of SRV1 to a Log Analytics workspace.

The required source files are located in a folder named \\dc1.contoso.com\install.

To complete this task, sign in the required computer or computers.

A. See the explanation below.

B. PlaceHolder

C. PlaceHolder

D. PlaceHolder

Correct Answer: A

Configure Windows event logs

Configure Windows event logs from the Agents configuration menu for the Log Analytics workspace.

Step 1: Go to the Log Analytics workspaces menu in the Azure portal.

Configure data sources

To configure data sources for Log Analytics agents, go to the Log Analytics workspaces menu in the Azure portal and select a workspace.

Step 2: Select Agents configuration.

Step 3: Select the tab for the data source you want to configure.

In this case the Windows event log of SRV1.

Step 4: Select only the Error option in the System Log row.

Azure Monitor only collects events from Windows event logs that are specified in the settings.

new AZ-800 dumps practice questions 15

Reference: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/agents/data-sources-windows-events https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/agents/agent-data-sources#configure-data-sources

More Microsoft Exam Questions…

Answers to your most important AZ-800 questions

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Share Some Important Tips For Cracking The Microsoft SC-400 Exam

latest SC-400 dumps free

This article not only shares some passing advice for the Microsoft SC-400 exam but also brings you practical solutions. To pass the SC-400 exam, you can improve your chances of passing the exam by downloading the Pass4itSure SC-400 dumps and taking a practice exam.

The latest SC-400 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/sc-400.html consists of 154 brand-new practice questions, presented in PDF and VCE mode, the best learning materials you deserve.

The SC-400 exam is Microsoft’s security certification exam that covers Azure security, authentication and access management, platform protection, data and application protection, and more.

Here are some suggestions for passing the SC-400 exam:

  • Familiarize yourself with the exam content: Before the exam, be sure to fully understand the content and format of the SC-400 exam.

You can check the exam guide and syllabus on Microsoft’s website to help you better prepare.

  • Learning-related knowledge areas: Learn about Microsoft security products and services related to the exam, such as Azure AD, Azure Sentinel, Azure Security Center, etc.

Make sure you have some understanding and proficiency in Azure infrastructure, network security, authentication, access control, data protection, application security, and more.

  • Brush questions and practice tests: Doing some practice tests and practice questions before the exam can help you better understand the difficulty and test points of the test, and improve your speed and accuracy in answering questions.
  • Resources can be found on Microsoft’s official training website or on other online education platforms. Also available below, the latest free exam questions from the Pass4itSure SC-400 dumps are available.
  • Stay calm: It is very important to stay calm and focused during the exam.

If you encounter a question you’re not sure about, skip it and answer the others, and finally take time to think carefully. At the same time, pay attention to time management.

The rest of the time, study.

Prepare fresh SC-400 exam materials for you

SC-400 dumps free online practice questions

Question 1:

Each product group at your company must show a distinct product logo in encrypted emails instead of the standard Microsoft Office 365 logo. What should you do to create the branding templates?

A. Create a Transport rule.

B. Create an RMS template.

C. Run the Set-IRMConfiguration cmdlet.

D. Run the New-OMEConfiguration cmdlet.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/add-your-organization-brand-to-encrypted-messages?view=o365-worldwide


Question 2:

Your company manufactures parts that are each assigned a unique 12-character alphanumeric serial number. Emails between the company and its customers reference the serial number.

You need to ensure that only Microsoft Exchange Online emails containing the serial numbers are retained for five years.

Which three objects should you create? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a sensitivity label

B. a retention policy

C. an auto-labeling policy

D. a trainable classifier

E. a sensitive info type

F. a retention label

G. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy

Correct Answer: CEF

C: One of the most powerful features of retention labels is the ability to apply them automatically to content that matches specified conditions.

F: You can apply retention labels to content automatically when that content contains: Specific types of sensitive information Specific keywords or searchable properties that match a query you create A match for trainable classifiers

E: Sensitive information types are pattern-based classifiers. They detect sensitive information like social security, credit card, or bank account numbers to identify sensitive items. Custom-sensitive information types use regular expressions, keywords, and keyword dictionaries.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/sensitive-information-type-learn-about?view=o365-worldwide

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/apply-sensitivity-label-automatically?view=o365-worldwide

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/retention?view=o365-worldwide


Question 3:

HOTSPOT

You have the files shown in the following table.

SC-400 online questions 3

You configure a retention policy as shown in the exhibit.

SC-400 online questions 3-2

The start of the retention period is based on when items are created. The current date is January 01, 2021.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 3-3

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 3-4

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/retention-policies-sharepoint?view=o365-worldwide


Question 4:

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses trainable classifiers.

You are creating a custom trainable classifier.

You collect 300 sample file types from various geographical locations to use as seed content. Some of the file samples are encrypted.

You organize the files into categories as shown in the following table.

SC-400 online questions 4

Which file categories can be used as seed content?

A. Category2, Category3, and Category5 only

B. Category1 and Category3 only

C. Category4 and Category6 only

D. Category4 and Category5 only

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/classifier-get-started-with?view=o365- worldwide

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/technical-reference/default-crawled-file-name-extensions-and-parsed-file-types


Question 5:

You implement Microsoft 365 Endpoint data loss prevention (Endpoint DLP).

You have computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft 365 Apps installed. The computers are joined to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).

You need to ensure that Endpoint DLP policies can protect content on the computers.

Solution: You onboard the computers to Microsoft Defender fur Endpoint.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

HOTSPOT

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses a domain named contoso.com.

A user named User1 leaves your company. The mailbox of User1 is placed on Litigation Hold, and then the account of User1 is deleted from Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).

You need to copy the content of the User1 mailbox to a folder in the existing mailbox of another user named User2.

How should you complete the PowerShell command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 6

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 6-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/restore-an-inactive-mailbox?view=o365-worldwide


Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You create a retention policy as shown in the following exhibit.

SC-400 online questions 7

A user named User1 deletes a file named File1.docx from a Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Site1.

A user named User2 deletes an email and empties the Deleted Items folder in Microsoft Outlook.

Where is the content retained one year after deletion? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 7-2

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 7-3

Question 8:

HOTSPOT You create a retention label policy named Contoso_Policy that contains the following labels:

1. 10 years then delete

2. 5 years then delete

3. Do not retain

Contoso_Policy is applied to content in Microsoft SharePoint Online sites.

After a couple of days, you discover the following messages on the Properties page of the label policy:

1. Status: Off (Error)

2. It\’s taking longer than expected to deploy the policy

You need to reinitiate the policy.

How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 8

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 8-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/set-retentioncompliancepolicy?view=exchange-ps


Question 9:

HOTSPOT

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains the devices shown in the following table.

SC-400 online questions 9

You need to onboard the devices to Microsoft Purview. The solution must ensure that you can apply Endpoint data loss prevention (Endpoint DLP) policies to the devices. What can you use to onboard each device? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 9-2

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 9-2

Question 10:

HOTSPOT

How many files in Site2 will be visible to User1 and User2 after you turn on DLPpolicy1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 10

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 10-2

Reference: https://social.technet.microsoft.com/wiki/contents/articles/36527.implement-data-loss-prevention-dlp-in-sharepoint-online.aspx


Question 11:

HOTSPOT

You are implementing Microsoft Office 365 Message Encryption (OME) for a Microsoft 365 tenant named contoso.com.

You need to meet the following requirements:

1. All emails to a domain named fabrikam.com must be encrypted automatically.

2. Encrypted emails must expire seven days after they are sent.

What should you configure for each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

SC-400 online questions 11

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 11-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/email-encryption?view=o365-worldwide

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/ome-advanced-expiration?view=o365-worldwide


Question 12:

DRAG DROP

You need to meet the technical requirements for the Site1 documents.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

SC-400 online questions 12

Correct Answer:

SC-400 online questions 12-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/apply-sensitivity-label-automatically?view=o365-worldwide#how-to-configure-auto-labeling-policies-for-sharepoint-onedrive-and-exchange


Question 13:

You are configuring a retention label named Label1 as shown in the following exhibit.

SC-400 online questions 13

You need to ensure that documents that have Label1 applied are deleted three years after the end of your company\’s fiscal year. What should you do?

A. Create a new event type.

B. Select Only delete items when they reach a certain age.

C. Modify the Retention period setting.

D. Set At the end of the retention period to Trigger a disposition review.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/event-driven-retention?view=o365-worldwide


Question 14:

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You are configuring a file policy in Microsoft Cloud App Security.

You need to configure the policy to apply to all files. Alerts must be sent to every file owner who is affected by the policy. The policy must scan for credit card numbers, and alerts must be sent to the Microsoft Teams site of the affected department.

Solution: You use the Built-in DLP inspection method and send alerts to Microsoft Power Automate.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cloud-app-security/content-inspection-built-in https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cloud-app-security/flow-integration


Question 15:

You need to be alerted when users share sensitive documents from Microsoft One Drive with any users outside your company. What should you do?

A. From the Exchange admin center, create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.

B. From the Azure portal, create an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Identity Protection policy.

C. From the Microsoft 365 compliance center, create an insider risk policy.

D. From the Cloud App Security portal, create a file policy.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/dlp-learn-about-dlp?view=o365-worldwide


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These are just some of the questions, and you need to go to Pass4itSure for the whole thing.

Conclusion:

To do the above exam recommendations, in conjunction with the latest SC-400 dumps, the full SC-400 question https://www.pass4itsure.com/sc-400.html is available for online download

With these, successfully passing the Microsoft Information Protection Administrator exam is easy.

PL-300 Dumps Update | Please Take A Moment To Practice

latest PL-300 dumps

The first step in passing the Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst exam is to prepare the latest PL-300 dumps for exam preparation. But this step alone is not enough, please take a moment to practice the PL-300 exam questions!

Pass4itSure updated PL-300 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/pl-300.html and PL-300 exam questions to help you prepare for the exam, so take the time to practice and earn your Microsoft Certified: Data Analyst Associate.

In this post, we will share PL-300 free dumps Q&A!

Why are PL-300 dumps important for preparation?

Yes, dumps are very important to crack the Microsoft PL-300 exam. If you don’t practice PL-300 dumps, you may end up failing.

But a word of caution: do not rely on outdated PL-300 dumps with incorrect answers, which could mislead our preparations.

Pass4itSure PL-300 dumps are recommended here. Pass4itSure is more compatible with the exam, and the questions are all set around the real test content, which is real and valid.

It costs $45.99, but trust me it’s worth every penny. There are 291 questions. Each question comes with a detailed explanation that will help us understand the Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst topic.

Passing the PL-300 exam cannot be neglected to take a moment to practice

Practice is the number one priority! Practice questions are necessary not only to promote understanding of the content of the exam but also to familiarize yourself with the exam. Be sure to take the time to practice the PL-300 exam questions!

Get Microsoft Exam PL-300 Dumps Questions 2023 (Free)

Question 1:

HOTSPOT

You have a dataset named Pens that contains the following columns:

1. Unit Price

2. Quantity Ordered

You need to create a visualization that shows the relationship between Unit Price and Quantity Ordered. The solution must highlight orders that have a similar unit price and ordered quantity.

Which type of visualization and which feature should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

pl-300 exam questions 1

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 1-2

Box 1: A scatter plot…

A scatter chart always has two value axes to show: one set of numerical data along a horizontal axis and another set of numerical values along a vertical axis. The chart displays points at the intersection of an x and y numerical value, combining these values into single data points.

Power BI may distribute these data points evenly or unevenly across the horizontal axis. It depends on the data the chart represents.

Box 2: Automatically find clusters

Scatter charts are a great choice to show patterns in large sets of data, for example by showing linear or non-linear trends, clusters, and outliers.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-scatter


Question 2:

You have an app workspace that contains a dashboard and four reports. All the reports are generated from a single dataset that contains sales data for your company. The reports display the data configured as shown in the following table.

pl-300 exam questions 2

You need to ensure that the users of the reports can locate the correct report by using natural language queries. What should you do?

A. From the properties of the dataset, create four Featured QandA Questions.

B. From the Format settings of the reports, modify the Page Information.

C. From the properties of the dataset, modify the QandA and Cortana settings.

D. From the properties of the workspace, modify the Language Settings.

Correct Answer: C

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-q-and-a-direct-query#limitations-during-public-preview


Question 3:

HOTSPOT

You have a column named UnitsInStock as shown in the following exhibit.

pl-300 exam questions 3

UnitsInStock has 75 non-null values, of which 51 are unique.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

pl-300 exam questions 3-2

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 3-3

Box 1: 75

Box 2: reduce

They reduce from the number of values (75), to the number of unique values (51).

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/create-reports/desktop-show-items-no-data


Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You have two Azure SQL databases that contain the same tables and columns. For each database, you create a query that retrieves data from a table named Customer.

You need to determine the Customer tables into a single table. The solution must minimize the size of the data model and support scheduled refresh in powerbi.com. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

pl-300 exam questions 4

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 4-2

Box 1: Append Queries as New.

There are two primary ways of combining queries: merging and appending.

1. When you have one or more columns that you’d like to add to another query, you merge the queries.

2. When you have additional rows of data that you’d like to add to an existing query, you append the query.

Box 2: Disable loading the query to the data model

For every query that loads into the model memory will be consumed. and Memory is our asset in the Model, less memory consumption leads to better performance in most cases. The best approach is to disable loading.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-query/append-queries


Question 5:

HOTSPOT

You have two tables named Customers and Invoice in a Power BI model. The Customers table contains the following fields:

1. CustomerID

2. Customer City

3. Customer State

4. Customer Name

5. Customer Address 1

6. Customer Address 2

7. Customer Postal Code

The Invoice table contains the following fields:

1. Order ID

2. Invoice ID

3. Invoice Date

4. Customer ID

5. Total Amount

6. Total Item Count

The Customers table is related to the Invoice table through the Customer ID columns. A customer can have many invoices within one month.

The Power BI model must provide the following information:

The number of customers invoiced in each state last month

The average invoice amount per customer in each postal code

You need to define the relationship from the Customers table to the Invoice table. The solution must optimize query performance. What should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

pl-300 exam questions 5

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 5-2

Box 1: One-to-many

A customer can have many invoices within one month.

Box 2: Single

For One-to-many relationships, the cross-filter direction is always from the “one” side, and optionally from the “many” side (bi-directional).

Single cross-filter direction means “single direction”, and Both means “both directions”. A relationship that filters in both directions is commonly described as bi-directional.


Question 6:

You have a QandA visual that displays information from a table named Carriers as shown in the following exhibit.

pl-300 exam questions 6

You need to ensure that users can ask questions by using the term airline or carrier. The solution must minimize changes to the data model. What should you do?

A. Add a duplicate query named Airline.

B. Add airline as a synonym of the carrier.

C. Rename the carrier column as an airline in the Carriers query.

D. Rename the query from Carriers to airlines.

Correct Answer: B

Add synonyms to tables and columns: This step applies specifically to QandA (and not to Power BI reports in general). Users often have a variety of terms they use to refer to the same thing, such as total sales, net sales, and total net sales. You can add these synonyms to tables and columns in the Power BI model.

This step can be important. Even with straightforward table and column names, users of QandA ask questions using the vocabulary that first comes to them. They\’re not choosing from a predefined list of columns. The more sensible synonyms you add, the better your users\’ experience is with your report.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/natural-language/q-and-a-best-practices


Question 7:

DRAG DROP

You build a report about warehouse inventory data. The dataset has more than 10 million product records from 200 warehouses worldwide.

You have a table named Products that contains the columns shown in the following table.

pl-300 exam questions 7

Warehouse managers report that it is difficult to use the report because the report uses only the product name in tables and visuals. The product name is contained within the ProductDescription column and is always the fourth value.

You need to modify the report to support the warehouse manager’s requirement to explore inventory levels at different levels of the product hierarchy. The solution must minimize the model size.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

pl-300 exam questions 7-2

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 7-3

Power BI Desktop supports the use of inline hierarchy labels. With inline hierarchy labels, you can see hierarchy labels as you expand visuals using the Expand All feature.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/create-reports/desktop-inline-hierarchy-labels


Question 8:

You need to create a Power Bl theme that will be used in multiple reports. The theme will include corporate branding for font size, color, and bar chart formatting.

What should you do?

A. Create a theme as a PBIVIZ file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

B. Create a theme as a JSON file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

C. From Power Bl Desktop, use a built-in report theme.

D. From Power Bl Desktop, customize the current theme.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

You have a data model that contains many complex DAX expressions. The expressions contain frequent references to the RELATED and RELATED TABLE functions.

You need to recommend a solution to minimize the use of the RELATED and RELATED TABLE functions.

What should you recommend?

A. Merge tables by using Power Query.

B. Hide unused columns in the model.

C. Split the model into multiple models.

D. Transpose.

Correct Answer: A

Combining data means connecting to two or more data sources, shaping them as needed, then consolidating them into a user query. When you have one or more columns that you\’d like to add to another query, you merge the queries.

Note: The RELATEDTABLE function is a shortcut for the CALCULATETABLE function with no logical expression. CALCULATETABLE evaluates a table expression in a modified filter context and returns A table of values.


Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/desktop-shape-and-combine-data

Question 10:

DRAG DROP

You have a Microsoft Excel workbook that contains two sheets named Sheet1 and Sheet2. Sheet 1 contains the following table named Table 1.

pl-300 exam questions 10

Sheet 2 contains the following table named Table 2.

Select and Place:

pl-300 exam questions 10-2

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 10-3
Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Once the profit and loss dataset is created, which four actions should you perform in sequence to ensure that the business unit analysts see the appropriate profit and loss data? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

pl-300 exam questions 11

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 11-2

Scenario: The analysts responsible for each business unit must see all the data the board sees, except the profit and loss data, which must be restricted to only their business unit\’s data. The analysts must be able to build new reports from

the dataset that contains the profit and loss data, but any reports that the analysts build must not be included in the quarterly reports for the board. The analysts must not be able to share the quarterly reports with anyone.

Define roles and rules in Power BI Desktop. You can define roles and rules within Power BI Desktop. When you publish to Power BI, it also publishes the role definitions.

To define security roles, follow these steps.

1. Import data into your Power BI Desktop report, or configure a DirectQuery connection. (step 1: From Power BI Desktop, publish the dataset to powerbi.com)

2. From the Modeling tab, select Manage Roles.

pl-300 exam questions 11-3

3. From the Manage roles window, select Create.

(Step 2: From Power BI Desktop, create four roles.)

4. Under Roles, provide a name for the role.

5. Under Tables, select the table to which you want to apply a DAX rule.

6. In the Table filter DAX expression box, enter the DAX expressions. This expression returns a value of true or false. For example: [Entity ID] = “Value”. (Step 3: From Power BI Desktop, add Table Filter DAX Expression to the roles.)

7. After you\’ve created the DAX expression, select the checkmark above the expression box to validate the expression.

8. Select Save.

pl-300 exam questions 14

Step 4: From powerbi.com, add role members to the roles.

You can’t assign users to a role within Power BI Desktop. You assign them to the Power BI service.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-admin-rls


Question 12:

HOTSPOT

You have a folder of monthly transaction extracts. You plan to create a report to analyze the transaction data.

You receive the following email message: “Hi, I’ve put 24 files of monthly transaction data onto the shared drive. File Transactions201801.csv through Transaction201812.csv have four columns while files Transactions201901.csv through

Transaction201912.csv have the same four columns plus an additional three columns. Each file contains 10 to 50 transactions.”

You get data from the folder and select Combine and Load. The Combine Files dialog box is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

pl-300 exam questions 12

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

pl-300 exam questions 12-2

Correct Answer:

pl-300 exam questions 12-3

Box 1: Yes

The four columns used in the 2018 transactions are already displayed.

Box 2: Yes

The columns used are based on the entire dataset. The additional columns in the 2019 files will be detected.

Box 3: Yes

Note: Under the hoods, Power BI will automatically detect which delimiter to use, and may even promote the first row as headers. You can manually change the delimiter, or define how Power BI should handle data types. You can set it to

automatically detect data types based on the first 200 rows or the entire dataset or you can even opt out of the detection of data types.


Question 13:

You use Power 81 Desktop to load data from a Microsoft SQL Server database. While waiting for the data to load, you receive the following error.

pl-300 exam questions 13

You need to resolve the error.

What are two ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Split long-running queries into subsets Of columns and use power Query to the queries

B. Disable query folding on long-running queries

C. Reduce the number of rows and columns returned by each query.

D. Use Power Query to combine long-running queries into one query.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

Your company plans to completely separate development and production assets such as datasets, reports, and dashboards in Microsoft Power BI.

You need to recommend an application lifecycle strategy. The solution must minimize access to production assets and prevent end users from viewing the development assets.

What should you recommend?

A. Create production reports in a separate workspace that uses a shared dataset from the development workspace. Grant the end users access to the production workspace.

B. Create one workspace for development. From the new workspace, publish an app for production.

C. Create a workspace for development and a workspace for production. From the production workspace, publish an app.

D. In one workspace, create separate copies of the assets and append DEV to the names of the copied assets. Grant the end users access to the workspace.

Correct Answer: C

Use different work stages (Development, Test, and Production).

Deploy from the Development workspace.


Question 15:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answers choices, but the text of the scenario is the same in each question in this series.

You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that contains the following tables.

pl-300 exam questions 15

The following columns contain date information:

1. Date[Month] in the mmyyyy format

2. Date[Date_ID] in the ddmmyyyy format

3. Date[Date_name] in the mm/dd/yyyy format

4. Monthly_returns[Month_ID] in the mmyyyy format

The Order table contains more than one million rows.

The Store table has a relationship to the Monthly_returns table on the Store_ID column. This is the only relationship between the tables.

You plan to use Power BI Desktop to create an analytics solution for the data. You need to create a relationship between the Order table and the Store table on the Store_ID column. What should you do before you create the relationship?

A. In the Order table query, use the Table.TrasformRows function.

B. In the Store table query, use the Table.TrasformRows function.

C. In the Store table query, use the Table.TrasformColumnTypes function.

D. In the Order table query, use the Table.TrasformColumnTypes function.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the CourierMobile app determines whether the franchisee owns the account. What should you do?
A. Use OAuth and App only security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/ sitecollection/web/list scope URI.
B. Use OAuth and App+User security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/
sitecollection scope URI.
C. Use SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in
the site collection.
D. Use the SharePoint user credentials of the bicycle messenger to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
070-488 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites. You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites. What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: The sites have been deleted.They need to be restored.A and B are wrong because modifying the Recycle Bin settings after the sites are deleted will have no effect on the deleted sites.
QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the CloudManager app can write route progress check-ins to the courier’s microfeed. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensure that SP.RequestExecutor.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
B. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Manage permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
C. Ensure that the MySite host is provisioned for each franchisee.
D. Ensure that all cookies are made available between the My Site and the CloudManager app domain.
E. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Write permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
F. Ensure that SP.UserProfiles.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
70-488 dumps Correct Answer: ABDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
/ Business Requirements
The FranchiseMonitor app must allow a Franchise employee to upload Appointments.csv to a SharePoint document library in each Franchisee site collection, and send Appointments.csv to the CloudManager app. / The FranchiseMonitor app must display the courier’s location on the bicycle courier’s microfeed on the SharePoint farm if the courier has remained stationary for more than three minutes. / The CloudManager app must implement business logic that parses Appointments.csv and geo- location data and sends Appointments or Appointment cancellations to the CourierMobile app.
QUESTION 4
You need to implement the custom claims provider for the SharePoint farm. Which code segments should you implement? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
070-488 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
MyClaimsProvider.es

070-488 dumps

QUESTION 5
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition and permissions at the site level

D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
070-488 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives. For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From scenario:
* The CourierMobile app receives Microsoft Outlook appointments (D) and Outlook appointment cancellations (E) from the CloudManager app. The appointments include the address of the location for pick-up or drop-off.
QUESTION 7
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app. Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
070-488 vce Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: SQL Azure in the cloud. lightweight version of Express that has the same programmability features, but
D: LocalDB is a it runs in user mode and has a fast, zero-configuration installation and a short list of prerequisites.
From scenario:
* CourierMobile App
The CourierMobile app must be able to capture more than 30 million data points of location data daily as they occur and upload the location data to the cloud when connected to the Internet.

* Cloudmanager App
/ The CloudManager app must elastically scale to capture courier location data as the number of bicycle couriers increases or decreases. / The CloudManager app must process bicycle courier location data from a data store capable of storing more than 30 million items.

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Question No : 30 – (Topic 1)  You are migrating a database named Orders to a new server that runs Microsoft SQL
Server 2012. You attempt to add the [Corpnet\User1] login to the database. However, you receive the following error message: “User already exists in current database.” You need to configure the [Corpnet\User1] login to be able to access the Orders database and retain the original permissions. You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum required permissions. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. DROP USER [User1]; CREATE USER [Corpnet\User1] FOR LOGIN [Corpnet\User1]; ALTER ROLE [db_owner] ADD MEM3ER [Corpnet\User1];
B. ALTER SERVER RCLS Isysadmin] ADD MEMBER [Corpnet\User1];
C. ALTER USER [Corpnet\User1] WITH LOGIN [Corpnet\User1];
D. ALTER ROLE [db owner] ADD MEMBBR [Corpnet\User1];
070-462 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 31 – (Topic 1)  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You configure Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) on the Orders database by using the following statements:
070-462 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
Question No : 32 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that has multiple databases. You need to ensure that users are unable to create stored procedures that begin with sp_. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Question No : 33 – (Topic 1)  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You provide temporary securityadmin access to User1 to the database server. You need to know if User1 adds logins to securityadmin. Which server-level audit action group should you use?
A. SERVER_STATE_CHANGE_GROUP
B. SERVER_PRINCIPAL_IMPERSONATION_GROUP
C. SUCCESSFUL_LOGIN_GROUP
D. SERVER_ROLE_MEMBER_CHANGE_GROUP
70-462 dumps Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
SERVER_STATE_CHANGE_GROUP
This event is raised when the SQL Server service state is modified. Equivalent to the Audit Server Starts and Stops Event Class. SERVER_PRINCIPAL_IMPERSONATION_GROUP 
This event is raised when there is an impersonation within server scope, such as EXECUTE AS <login>. Equivalent to the Audit Server Principal Impersonation Event Class.
SUCCESSFUL_LOGIN_GROUP Indicates that a principal has successfully logged in to SQL Server. Events in this class are raised by new connections or by connections that are reused from a connection pool. Equivalent to the Audit Login Event Class. SERVER_ROLE_MEMBER_CHANGE_GROUP This event is raised whenever a login is added or removed from a fixed server role. This event is raised for the sp_addsrvrolemember and sp_dropsrvrolemember stored procedures. Equivalent to the Audit Add Login to Server Role Event Class.
 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance.
Question No : 34 – (Topic 1)  You need to stop a blocking process that has an SPID of 64 without stopping other
processes What should you do?
A. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement: EXECUTE sp_KillSPID 64
B. Restart the SQL Server service.
C. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement: KILL 64
D. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement: ALTER SESSION KILL ’64’
Answer: C
Question No : 35 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server. A variety of issues occur from time to time in the production environment. You need to identify the appropriate tool for each issue. Which tool or tools should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate tool or tools to the correct issue or issues in the answer area. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
070-462 dumps

Question No : 36 – (Topic 1) You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. Users report that an application that accesses the database displays an error, but the error does not provide meaningful information. No entries are found in the SQL Server log or Windows event logs related to the error. You need to identify the root cause of the issue by retrieving the error message. What should you do?
A. Create an Extended Events session by using the sqlserver.error_reported event.
B. Create a SQL Profiler session to capture all ErrorLog and EventLog events.
C. Flag all stored procedures for recompilation by using sp_recompile.
D. Execute sp_who.
070-462 pdf Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server. One of the databases on the server supports a highly active OLTP application. Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data into the application.
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)  You need to identify which queries are taking longer than 1 second to run over an extended period of time. What should you do?
A. use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of more than 1,000.
B. Use sp_configure to set a value for blocked process threshold. Create an extended event session.
C. Use the Job Activity monitor to review all processes that are actively running. Review the Job History to find out the duration of each step.
D. Run the sp_who command from a query window.
E. Run the DBCC TRACEON 1222 command from a query window and review the SQL Server event log.
Answer: E
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
Verified the SQL Profiler and DBCC answers as correct. However, while Profiler will show  this information, the best practice with Profiler is to use it short-term. The question specifically states “over an extended period of time”. That means Profiler wouldn’t be the best tool for this scenario. Therefore, DBCC would be the best answer.

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  • Install and configure (20–25%)
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  • Implement security (15–20%)
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-462 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-16)

QUESTION 1
You are a database administrator for a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance. You need to ensure that data can be migrated from a production server to two reporting servers with minimal data to ensure that data on the reporting server is always accessible which solution should you use?
A. Database snapshot
B. Log Shipping
C. Change Data Capture
D. AvailabilityGroups
70-462 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for SQL Server 2012?
A. 6GB of hard drive space
B. 1GB of memory
C. 1GHZ CPU speed
D. a graphics card with 2GB video memory
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 to develop a database application. You need to create an object that meets the
following requirements: Takes an input variable Returns a table of values Cannot be referenced within a view Which object should you use?
A. Scalar-valued function
B. Inline function
C. User-defined data type
D. Stored procedure
70-462 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 4
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The
transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting
database is only updated from the transactional database. The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table:
70-462 dumps
At 14:00 hours, you discover that pages 71, 520, and 713 on one of the database files are corrupted on the reporting
database. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal. What should you do?
A. Perform a partial restore.
B. Restore thelatestfullbackup, andrestore thelatest differentialbackup. Then, restore eachlog backuptaken before the
time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
C. Restore the latest full backup.
D. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup.
E. Perform a page restore.
F. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most
recentfull backup.
G. Perform a point-in-time restore.
H. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
Correct Answer: H
Explanation
Restores a file or filegroup in a multi-filegroup database. Note that under the simple recovery model, the file must belong to a read-only filegroup. After a full file restore, a differential file backup can b

QUESTION 5
You administer all the deployments of Microsoft SQL Server 2012 in your company. You need to ensure that an OLTP
database that includes up-to-the-minute reporting requirements can be off-loaded from the primary database to another server. You also need to be able to add indexes to the secondary database. Which configuration should you use?
A.
Two servers configured in different data centers
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
One server configured as an Active Secondary
B.
Two servers configured in the same data center
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode
One server configured as an Active Secondary
C.
Two servers configured in the same data center
A primary server configured to perform log-shipping every 10 minutes
A backup server configured as a warm standby
D.
Two servers configured in different data centers
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode
E.
Two servers configured on the same subnet
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
F.
SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform transactional replication
G.
SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform snapshot replication
H.
Two servers configured in a Windows Failover Cluster in the same data center
SQL Server configured as a clustered instance
70-462 pdf Correct Answer: F
Explanation
Reference:

QUESTION 6
What is the minimum recommended amount of RAM for SQL Server 2012 Enterprise?
A. 512 MB
B. 1 GB
C. 2 GB
D. 4 GB
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database. The database is in the Simple recovery mode. You schedule the following backup plan:
Full backup every day at midnight
Differential backups every hour on the hour, except at midnight
The database fails at 20:45 hours. You need to use SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) to begin restoring the database to a new server instance with a minimum amount of data loss. Which options should you select on the Options page of the Restore Database window? (To answer, configure the appropriate option or options in the dialog box in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
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70-462 vce Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 8
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server. When transaction logs grow, SQL Server must send an email message to the database administrators. You need to configure SQL Server to send the email messages. What should you configure?
A. SQL Mail
B. An Extended Events session
C. Alerts and operators in SQL Server Agent
D. Policies under Policy-Based Management
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database instance that uses transparent database encryption.
You plan to move the database from the current server to a new server by using Backup and Restore.
You need to ensure that the database can be restored to the new server. You also need to ensure that the database
remains encrypted at all times. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-462 dumps
Explanation

QUESTION 10
You have an index called Employee_IDX on the table Employees. Which of the following will rebuild this index online?
A. ALTER INDEX Employee_IDX ON Employees REBUILD WITH (ONLINE = ON);
B. CREATE INDEX Employee_IDX ON Employees REBUILD WITH (ONLINE = ON);
C. REBUILD ONLINE INDEX Employee_IDX ON Employees;
D. ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE Employee_IDX;
70-462 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which of the following file systems is supported for an SQL Server 2012 installation?
A. EXT4
B. NTFS
C. FAT16
D. EXT3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
You administer all the deployments of Microsoft SQL Server 2012 in your company. You have two servers in the same
data center that hosts your production database. You need to ensure that the database remains available if a catastrophic server failure or a disk failure occurs. You also need to maintain transactional consistency of the data across both servers. You need to achieve these goals without manual intervention. Which configuration should you use?
A. Two servers configured in a Windows Failover Cluster in the same data center SQL Server configured as a clustered instance
B. SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform transactional replication
C. Two servers configured in the same data center A primary server configured to perform log-shipping every 10
minutes A backup server configured as a warm standby
D. Two servers configured in different data centers SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit
Availability Mode One server configured as an Active Secondary
E. Two servers configured in the same data center SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit
Availability Mode One server configured as an Active Secondary
F. Two servers configured in different data centers SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous Commit
Availability Mode
G. SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform snapshot replication
H. Two servers configured on the same subnet SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
70-462 dumps Correct Answer: H
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which of the following SQL Server 2012 indexes is ordered independently of the actual physical order of the table data on which the index is based?
A. CLUSTERED
B. BITMAP
C. NONCLUSTERED
D. IND_ORDERED
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 14
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a
view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report. You need to display dates and times in
several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 15
You want to remove SQL Server Integration Services from a server running the Windows Server 2008 R2 operating
system that also has the Database Engine and SQL Server Analysis Services installed. Which of the following tools can
you use to accomplish this goal?
A. SQLServerManagementStudio
B. SQL Server Configuration Manager
C. Add/Remove Programs inControl Panel
D. SQL Server Installation Center
70-462 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 16
You are a database administrator for a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 environment. You want to deploy a new application that will scale out the workload to at least five different SQL Server instances. You need to ensure that for each copy of the database, users are able to read and write data that will then be synchronized between all of the database instances. Which feature should you use?
A. Database Mirroring
B. Peer-to-Peer Replication
C. Log Shipping
D. AvailabilityGroups
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 181
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a workstation that runs Windows 8. You need to install the prerequisite components so that you can view mail protection reports on the workstation. Which two items must you install? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. SQL Server Analysis Services
B. Microsoft Connectivity Analyzer Tool
C. Microsoft Access 2013

D. .NET Framework 4.5
E. Microsoft Excel 2013
70-346 exam Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 182
An organization migrates to Office 365. The Office 365 administrator must be notified when Office 365 maintenance activities are planned. You need to configure the administrator’s computer to receive the notifications. What should you configure?
A. Office 365 Management Pack for System Center Operations Manager
B. Service requests
C. Service health page
D. Office 365 Service Health RSS Notifications feed
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 183
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You create a new retention policy that contains several retention tags. A user named Test5 has a client computer that runs Microsoft Office Outlook 2007. You install Microsoft Outlook 2010 on the client computer of Test5. Test5 reports that the new retention tags are unavailable from Outlook 2010. You verify that other users can use the new retention tags. You need to ensure that the new retention tags are available to Test5 from Outlook 2010. What should you do?
A. Instruct Test5 to repair the Outlook profile.
B. Modify the retention policy tags.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. Force directory synchronization.
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 184
Your company purchases an Office 365 plan. The company has an Active Directory Domain Services domain. User1 must manage Office 365 delegation for the company. You need to ensure that User1 can assign administrative roles to other users. What should you do?
A. Use a password administrator account to assign the role to User1.
B. Use a user management administrator account to assign the role to User1.
C. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the global administrator role.
D. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the password administrator role.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 185
Your company has 100 user mailboxes. The company purchases a subscription to Office 365 for professionals and small businesses. You need to enable the Litigation Hold feature for each mailbox. What should you do first?
A. Create a service request.
B. Modify the default retention policy.

C. Enable audit logging for all of the mailboxes.
D. Purchase a subscription to Office 365 for midsize business and enterprises.
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 186
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012. You plan to install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server. You need to install and configure all of the required roles. Which two roles should you install and configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. AD FS
B. Web Server (IIS)
C. Remote Access
D. Application Server
E. Network Policy and Access Service
F. Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS)
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 187
Product-quality-related costs are part of a total quality control program. A product-quality related cost incurred in detecting individual products that do not conform to specifications is an example of a n)
A. Prevention cost.
B. Appraisal cost.
C. External failure cost.
D. Opportunity cost.
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Quality-related costs can be subdivided into four categories: external failure costs, internalfailure costs, prevention costs, and appraisal costs. Appraisal costs embrace such activities asstatistical quality control programs, inspection, and testing. Thus, the cost of detectingnonconforming individual products is an appraisal cost.
QUESTION 188
The costs of quality that are incurred in detecting units of product that do not conform to product specifications are referred to as
A. Prevention costs.
B. Appraisal costs.
C. Rework costs.
D. Failure costs.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Appraisal embraces such activities as statistical quality control programs, inspection, andtesting. Appraisal costs are those costs such as test equipment maintenance and destructivetesting) incurred to detect which products do not conform to specifications.
QUESTION 189
The use of teams in total quality management TOM) is important because:
A. Well-managed teams can be highly creative and are able to address complex problemsbetter than individuals can.
B. Teams are quicker to make decisions, thereby helping to reduce cycle time.
C. Employee motivation is higher for team members than for individual contributors.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby alloying a company tobecome leaner and more profitable.
70-346 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Teams can use the diverse knowledge and skills of all team members. Employee involvementmeans training and empowering employees to harness their creativity for problem solving. Quality control circles are used to obtain input from employees and to locate the bestperspective on problem solving.
QUESTION 190
A means of limiting production delays caused by equipment breakdown and repair is to:
A. Schedule production based on capacity planning.
B. Plan maintenance activity based on an analysis of equipment repair work orders.
C. Pre-authorize equipment maintenance and overtime pa}.
D. Establish a preventive maintenance program for all production equipment.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Preventivemaintenance program will reduce equipment breakdowns and repairs.
QUESTION 191
If a manufacturer has established a limit on the number of defects that are tolerable in the final assembly of its product, which of the following quality control procedures should be employed?
I.Inspect completed goods for compliance with established tolerances.
II. Review sales returns for defects not detected during the final inspection process.
III. Compare materials and machinery specifications with original product designs.
IV. Establish a quality circle that includes management and subordinates to discuss labor efficiency.
A. I, III, and I.
B. II and III only.
C. I, II, and III.
D. III and IV only.
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Quality control procedures may be categorized according to the nature of the costs incurred. An organization incurs appraisal costs to ensure product quality. These costs include thecosts of inspection, testing, and statistical quality control programs. An organization alsoshould investigate the causes of sales returns, which represent an external failure cost. Furthermore, the organization should incur certain prevention costs, e.g., by reviewingequipment design and materials requirements.
QUESTION 192
Which statement best describes total quality management TOM)?
A. TOM emphasizes reducing the cast of inspection.
B. TOM emphasizes better statistical quality control techniques.
C. TOM emphasizes doing each job right the first time.
D. TOM emphasizes encouraging crass-functional teamwork.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
TOM establishes quality as an organizational objective and views it as a major component ofthe organization’s service to its customers. It emphasizes employee training and commitment,product/service design and production, and customer service. Ordinarily, the quality of aproduct or service is as important to customers as cast and timeliness. Superior productquality is not attained merely through more inspection, better statistical quality control, andcross-functional teamwork. Manufactures must make fundamental changes in the way theyproduce products and do each jab right the first time.
QUESTION 193
Quality cost indices are often used to measure and analyze the cost of maintaining or improving the level of quality. Such indices are computed by dividing the total cost of quality over a given period by some measure of activity during that period for example, sales dollars). The following cost data are available for a company for the month of March. The company’s quality cost index is calculated using total cost of quality divided by sales dollars.
Sales US $400,000
Direct materials cost 100,000
Direct labor cost 80,000
Testing and inspection cost 6,400
Scrap and rework cost 16,800
Quality planning cost 2,800
Cost of customer complaints and returns 4,000
The quality cost index for March is:
A. 7.5%
B. 6.5%
C. 22.0%
D. 5.9%
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The total cost of quality equals the sum of prevention costs quality planning), appraisal casts testing and inspection), internal failure casts scrap and rework), and external failure castscustomer complaints and returns), or U $30,000 $2,800 + $6,400 + $16,800 + $4,000). Thequality cost index equals the total casts of quality divided by sales. Thus, the quality castindex for March is 7.5% U $80,000 U $400,000).
QUESTION 194
The internal audit activity has undertaken an audit of the shipping and receiving department of a department store chain. The best engagement tool for this purpose most likely is:
A. Competitive benchmarking.
B. Strategic benchmarking.
C. Internal benchmarking.
D. Process benchmarking.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process function) benchmarking studies operations of organizations with similar processesregardless of industry. Thus, the benchmark need not be a competitor Or even a similarentity}. This method may introduce new ideas that provide a significant competitiveadvantage. The advantage of process benchmarking is that it permits a wider choice ofbenchmarked organizations. Thus, the best practices for a shipping and receiving functionmay not be found in the same industry}.
QUESTION 195
Using the balanced scorecard approach, an organization evaluates managerial performance based on
A. A single ultimate measure of operating results, such as residual income.
B. Multiple financial and nonfinancial measures.
C. Multiple nonfinancial measures only.
D. Multiple financial measures only.
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The trend in managerial performance evaluation is the balanced scorecard approach. Multiplemeasures of performance permit a determination as to whether a manager is achieving certainobjectives at the expense of others that may be equally or more important. These measuresmay be financial or nonfinancial and usually include items in four categories: I) financial; 2)customer; 3) internal business processes; and 4) learning, growth, and innovation.
QUESTION 196
On a balanced scorecard, which of the following is not a customer measure?
A. Market share.
B. Economic value added.
C. Service response time.
D. Warranty expense.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Customer measures include market share and its trend, service response time, deliveryperformance, warranty returns, expense, complaints, and survey results. Economic valueadded, or E1 A, is a financial measure.
QUESTION 197
Under the balanced scorecard concept, employee satisfaction and retention are measures used under which of the following perspectives?
A. Customer.
B. Internal business.
C. Learning and growth.
D. Financial.
70-346 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The balanced scorecard is an accounting report that connects the firm’s critical successfactors CSFs) determined in a strategic analysis to measures of its performance. CSFs arefinancial and nonfinancial measures. For the learning, growth, and innovation perspective,the CSFs may be development of new products, promptness of their introduction, humanresource development, morale, and competence of the workforce. Measures of employeesatisfaction, retention, and competence may include RD personnel qualifications, hours oftraining, skill set levels attained, personnel turnover, and personnel complaints and surveyresults.
QUESTION 198
On a balanced scorecard, which is more of an internal process measure than an external based measure?
A. Cycle time.
B. Profitability.
C. Customer satisfaction.
D. Market share.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cycle time is the manufacturing time to complete an order. Thus, cycle time is strictly relatedto internal processes. Profitability is a combination of internal and external considerations. Customer satisfaction and market share are related to how customers perceive a product andhow competitors react.
QUESTION 199
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of an innovative manufacturing company?
A. Emphasis on continuous improvement.
B. Responsiveness to the changing manufacturing environment.
C. Emphasis on existing products.
D. Improved customer satisfaction through product quality.

70-346 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Innovative companies are customer driven. Because customers demand ever better qualityand competitors are attempting to provide that quality, continuous improvement calledkaizen by the Japanese) is essential for such companies. Thus, the flaw of innovativeproducts and services must be continuous. Simply emphasizing existing products is not aneffective strategy for most organizations.

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QUESTION 69
You have a server named SCI that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Shadow copies are enabled on all volumes. You need to delete a specific shadow copy. The solution must minimize server downtime. Which tool should you use?
A. Shadow
B. Diskshadow
C. Wbadmin
D. Diskpart
70-412 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DiskShadow.exe is a tool that exposes the functionality offered by the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS). The diskshadow command delete shadows deletes shadow copies.
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QUESTION 70
You have 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create a Windows PowerShell script that registers each server in Windows Azure Backup and sets an encryption passphrase. Which two PowerShell cmdlets should you run in the script? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. New-OBPolicy
B. New-OBRetentionPolicy
C. Add-OBFileSpec
D. Start-OBRegistration
E. Set OBMachineSetting
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
D: Start-OBRegistration
Registers the current computer with Windows Azure Online Backup using the credentials (user- name and password) created during enrollment.
E: The Set-OBMachineSetting cmdlet sets a OBMachineSetting object for the server that in- cludes proxy server settings for accessing the internet, network bandwidth throttling settings, and the encryption passphrase that is required to decrypt the files during recovery to another server.
Incorrect:
Not C: TheAdd-OBFileSpeccmdlet adds theOBFileSpecobject, which specifies the items to in- clude or exclude from a backup, to the backup policy (OBPolicyobject). TheOBFileSpecobject can include or exclude multiple files, folders, or volumes. T Reference: Start-OBRegistration; Set OBMachineSetting
QUESTION 71
You have 30 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the servers are backed up daily by using Windows Azure Online Backup. You need to perform an immediate backup of all the servers to Windows Azure Online Backup. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run on each server?
A. Get-OBPolicy | StartOBBackup
B. Start-OBRegistration | StartOBBackup
C. Get-WBPolicy | Start-WBBackup
D. Get-WBBackupTarget | Start-WBBackup
70-412 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This example starts a backup job using a policy.
Windows PowerShell
PS C:\> Get-OBPolicy | Start-OBBackup
Incorrect:
Not B. Registers the current computer to Windows Azure Backup.
Not C. Not using Azure
Not D. Not using Azure
Reference: Start-OBBackup
QUESTION 72
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and is used for testing. A developer at your company creates and installs an unsigned kernel-mode driver on Server1. The developer reports that Server1 will no longer start. You need to ensure that the developer can test the new driver. The solution must minimize the amount of data loss. Which Advanced Boot Option should you select?
A. Disable Driver Signature Enforcement
B. Disable automatic restart on system failure
C. Last Know Good Configuration (advanced)
D. Repair Your Computer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. By default, 64-bit versions of Windows Vista and later versions of Windows will load a ker- nel-mode driver only if the kernel can verify the driver signature. However, this default behavior can be disabled to facilitate early driver development and non-automated testing.

70-412 dumps
Incorrect:
Not B. specifies that Windows automatically restarts your computer when a failure occurs Not C. Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed Not D. Removes or repairs critical windows files, Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed and some file loss
Reference: Installing Windows Server 2012
QUESTION 73
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. When you install a custom Application on Server1 and restart the server, you receive the follow- ing error message: “The Boot Configuration Data file is missing some required information.
File: \Boot\BCD
Error code: 0x0000034.”

You start Server1 by using Windows RE. You need to ensure that you can start Windows Server 2012 R2 on Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. Bootsect
B. Bootim
C. Bootrec
D. Bootcfg
70-412 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Bootrec.exe tool to troubleshoot “Bootmgr Is Missing” issue. The /ScanOs option scans all disks for installations that are compatible with Windows Vista or Windows 7. Additionally, this option displays the entries that are currently not in the BCD store. Use this option when there are Windows Vista or Windows 7 installations that the Boot Manager menu does not list.
* Error code 0x0000034 while booting.
Resolution:
1. Put the Windows Windows 7 installation disc in the disc drive, and then start the computer.
2. Press any key when the message indicating “Press any key to boot from CD or DVD …”. appears.
3. Select a language, time, currency, and a keyboard or another input method. Then click Next.
4. Click Repair your computer.
5. Click the operating system that you want to repair, and then click Next.
6. In the System Recovery Options dialog box, click Command Prompt.
7. Type Bootrec /RebuildBcd, and then press ENTER.
Incorrect:
Not A. Bootsect.exe updates the master boot code for hard disk partitions to switch between BOOTMGR and NTLDR. You can use this tool to restore the boot sector on your computer. This tool replaces FixFAT and FixNTFS.
Not D. The bootcfg command is a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 utility that modifies the Boot.ini file.
Reference: Bootsect Command-Line Options

QUESTION 74
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?
A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
A. Cost variance (CV)
B. Cost performance index (CPI)
C. Budget at completion (BAC)
D. Variance at completion (VAC)
70-412 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
A. Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.
C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams.
D. Activity attributes and resource calendars.
70-412 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
70-412 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management
70-412 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
A. Change control tools
B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:
A. Work packages.
B. Accepted deliverables.
C. The WBS dictionary.
D. The scope baseline.
70-412 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
A. Project Cost Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Integration Management
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. Completion
70-412 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
70-412 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
When should quality planning be performed?
A. While developing the project charter
B. In parallel with the other planning processes
C. As part of a detailed risk analysis
D. As a separate step from the other planning processes
70-412 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
A. The best use of communication methods.
B. An efficient and effective communication flow.
C. Project costs to be reduced.
D. The best use of communication technology.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 91
The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:
A. Human resource management plan.
B. Activity resource requirements.
C. Personnel assessment tools,
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
70-412 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
A. Control Schedule.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Activities.
D. Develop Schedule.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Work performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Context diagrams

70-412 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
The organization’s perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
A. Responses
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Attitude
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
A. change requests
B. enterprise environmental factors
C. the stakeholder management plan
D. the change log
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
70-412 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Source selection criteria.
B. Market research.
C. A stakeholder register.
D. A records management system.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks
70-412 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 99
Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
A. Close Project or Phase

B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
70-412 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
A regression line is used to estimate:
A. Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
C. The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.
D. The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
An input to Conduct Procurements is:
A. Independent estimates.
B. Selected sellers.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Resource calendars.
70-412 exam 
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-773
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION NO: 82
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>

using namespace std;
class BaseC
{
int *ptr;
public:
BaseC() { ptr = new int(10);}
BaseC(int i) { ptr = new int(i); }
~BaseC() { delete ptr; }
void Print() { cout << *ptr; }
};
int main()
{
BaseC *o = new BaseC(5);
o?>Print();
}
A. It prints: 5
B. It prints: 10
C. It prints: 1
D. It prints: 0
70-773 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 83
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
const char *s;
char str[] = “Hello “;
s = str;
while(*s) {
cout << *++s;
*s++;
}
return 0;
}
A. It will print:”el ”
B. The code will not compile.
C. It will print:”Hello ”
D. It will print garbage value
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;

class A {
public :
void print() {
cout << “A “;
}
};
class B {
public :
void print() {
cout << “B “;
}
};
int main() {
B sc[2];
A *bc = (A*)sc;
for (int i=0; i<2;i++)
(bc++)->print();
return 0;
}
A. It prints: A A
B. It prints: B B
C. It prints: A B
D. It prints: B A
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 85

What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int x,y=10;
float f;
f = 5.20;
x=(int) f;
cout << x <<“, “;
f=float (y);
cout << f;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 5, 10
B. It prints: 5.2, 10
C. It prints: 5.20, 10.0
D. It prints: 5.2, 10.00
70-773 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 86
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>

using namespace std;
int op(int x, int y)
{
return x?y;
}
int op(int x, float y)
{
return x+y;
}
int main()
{
int i=1, j=2, k, l;
float f=0.23;
k = op(i, j);
l = op(j, f);
cout<< k << “,” << l;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: ?1,?1
B. It prints: ?1,3
C. It prints: ?1,2
D. Compilation fails
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 87
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. A function can be defined inside another function
B. A function may have any number of return statements each returning different values.
C. A function can return floating point value
D. In a function two return statements should never occur.
70-773 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 88
Which code, inserted at line 15, generates the output “5 Bob”?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
class B;
class A {
int age;
public:
A () { age=5; };
friend void Print(A &ob, B &so);
};
class B {
string name;
public:

B () { name=”Bob”; };
//insert code here
};
void Print(A &ob, B &so) {
cout<<ob.age << ” ” << so.name;
}
int main () {
A a;
B b;
Print(a,b);
return 0;
}
A. friend void Print(A ob, B so);
B. friend void Print(A &ob, B &so);
C. friend void Print(A *ob, B *so);
D. None of these
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 89
What is the output of the program if characters ‘t’, ‘e’, ‘s’ and ‘t’ enter are supplied as input?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>

using namespace std;
int main()
{
string s;
getline( cin, s );
cout << s << ” ” << s.length();
return( 0 );
}
A. It prints: test 4
B. It prints: test
C. It prints: test 5
D. It prints: 4
70-773 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 90
What happens if character 3 is entered as input?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class A {
public:
int i;
};
int main () {
int c;

A obj;
obj.i = 5;
cin >> c;
try
{
switch (c)
{
case A. throw 20;
case B. throw 5.2f;
case C. throw obj;
default: cout<<“No exception”;
}
}
catch (int e)
{ cout << “int exception. Exception Nr. ” << e; }
catch (A e)
{ cout << “object exception. Exception Nr. ” << e.i; }
catch (…)
{ cout << “An exception occurred.”; }
return 0;
}
A. It prints: object exception. Exception Nr. 5
B. It prints: int exception. Exception Nr.
C. It prints: An exception occurred
D. It prints: No exception
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 91
Point out an error in the program.
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
char s1[] = “Hello”;
char s2[] = “world”;
char *const ptr = s1;
*ptr = ‘a’;
ptr = s2;
return 0;
}
A. No error
B. Cannot modify a const object
C. Compilation error at line 9
D. None of these
70-773 exam Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 92
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;

int main()
{
int x=20;
int *ptr;
ptr = &x;
cout<<*ptr;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 20
B. It prints: 0
C. It prints address of ptr
D. It prints: 2
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 93
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int x=0;
int *ptr;

ptr = &x;
cout<<x<<” “<<*ptr;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 0 0
B. It prints address of ptr
C. It prints: 1
D. It prints: 2
70-773 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 94
Given:
#include <iostream>
#include <exception>
using namespace std;
int main () {
try
{
int * myarray= new int[1000];
}
catch (bad_alloc&)

{
cout << “Error allocating memory”;
}
catch (exception& e)
{
cout << “Standard exception”;
}
catch (…)
{
cout << “Unknown exception”;
}
return 0;
}
What will happen if we use the operator “new” and the memory cannot be allocated?
A. It prints: Error allocating memory
B. It prints: Standard exception
C. It prints: Unknown exception
D. Compilation error
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 95
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;

struct {
int x;
char c;
union {
float f;
int i;
};
} s;
int main (int argc, const char * argv[])
{
s.x=10;
s.i=0;
cout << s.i << ” ” << s.x;
}
A. It prints: 0 10
B. It prints: 11
C. Compilation error
D. None of these
70-773 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 96
What is the output of the program?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int main () {
string s1 = “Hello”, s2 = “World”;
s2 = s1 + s2;
cout << s2;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: Hello
B. It prints: HelloWorld
C. It prints: WorldHello
D. It prints: WorldHelloWorld
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 97
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int *t;

t = new int[2];
for (int i=0; i<2; i++) {
t[i]=0;
}
cout << t[1];
}
A. It prints: 0
B. It prints: 1
C. It prints: 2
D. It prints: 3
70-773 vce Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-698
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows 10
Q&As: 130

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-698 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 35
Your EC2-Based Multi-tier application includes a monitoring instance that periodically makes application – level read only requests of various application components and if any of those fail more than three times 30 seconds calls CloudWatch lo fire an alarm, and the alarm notifies your operations team by email and SMS of a possible application health problem. However, you also need to watch the watcher -the monitoring instance itself – and be notified if it becomes un- healthy. Which of the following Is a simple way to achieve that goal?
A. Run another monitoring instance that pings the monitoring instance and fires a could watch alarm mat notifies your operations teamshould the primary monitoring instance become un- healthy.
B. Set a Cloud Watch alarm based on EC2 system and instance status checks and have the alarm notify your operations team of anydetected problem with the monitoring instance.
C. Set a Cloud Watch alarm based on the CPU utilization of the monitoring instance and nave the alarm notify your operations team if C r the CPU usage exceeds 50% few more than one minute: then have your monitoring application go into a CPU-bound loop should itDetect any ap- plication problems.
D. Have the monitoring instances post messages to an SOS queue and then dequeue those mes- sages on another instance should D c- the queue cease to have new messages, the second in- stance should first terminate the original monitoring instance start anotherbackup monitoring in- stance and assume (he role of the previous monitoring instance and beginning adding messages to the SOSqueue.
70-698 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 36
You have decided to change the Instance type for instances running In your application tier that are using Auto Scaling.
In which area below would you change the instance type definition?
A. Auto Scaling launch configuration
B. Auto Scaling group
C. Auto Scaling policy
D. Auto Scaling tags
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 37
You are attempting to connect to an instance in Amazon VPC without success You have already verified that the VPC has an Internet Gateway (IGW) the instance has an associated Elastic IP (EIP) and correct security group rules are in place.
Which VPC component should you evaluate next?
A. The configuration of a MAT instance
B. The configuration of the Routing Table

C. The configuration of the internet Gateway (IGW)
D. The configuration of SRC’DST checking
70-698 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 38
You are tasked with the migration of a highly trafficked Node JS application to AWS In order to comply with organizational standards Chef recipes must be used to configure the application servers that host this application and to support application lifecycle events. Which deployment option meets these requirements while minimizing administrative burden?
A. Create a new stack within Opsworks add the appropriate layers to the stack and deploy the ap
plication
B. Create a new application within Elastic Beanstalk and deploy this application to a new envi- ronment
C. Launch a Mode JS server from a community AMI and manually deploy the application to the launched EC2 instance
D. Launch and configure Chef Server on an EC2 instance and leverage the AWS CLI to launch
application servers and configure those instances using Chef.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 39
You have been asked to automate many routine systems administrator backup and recovery ac- tivities Your current plan is to leverage AWS-managed solutions as much as possible and auto- mate the rest with the AWS CU and scripts. Which task would be best accomplished with a script?
A. Creating daily EBS snapshots with a monthly rotation of snapshots
B. Creating daily ROS snapshots with a monthly rotation of snapshots
C. Automatically detect and stop unused or underutilized EC2 instances
D. Automatically add Auto Scaled EC2 instances to an Amazon Elastic Load Balancer
70-698 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Your organization’s security policy requires that all privileged users either use frequently rotated passwords or one-time access credentials in addition to username/password. Which two of the following options would allow an organization to enforce this policy for AWS users? Choose 2 answers
A. Configure multi-factor authentication for privileged 1AM users
B. Create 1AM users for privileged accounts
C. Implement identity federation between your organization’s Identity provider leveraging the 1AM Security Token Service
D. Enable the 1AM single-use password policy option for privileged users

Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 41
What are characteristics of Amazon S3? Choose 2 answers
A. Objects are directly accessible via a URL
B. S3 should be used to host a relational database
C. S3 allows you to store objects or virtually unlimited size
D. S3 allows you to store virtually unlimited amounts of data
E. S3 offers Provisioned IOPS
70-698 vce Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

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