Microsoft

Where Can I Find the PDF for the Discount Microsoft 70-462 Dumps Exam Certification

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-462 Dumps Demo, Discount Microsoft 70-462 Dumps Preparation Materials Are Based On The Real Exam Youtube, We Help You Pass Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases – pass4itsure 70-462 dumps (200+ Questions). How do you want to prove your ability? More and more people prove themselves by taking IT certification exam. Do you want to get the certificate? You can first register pass4itsure Microsoft 98-367 free dumps.

  • Install and configure (20–25%)
  • Maintain instances and databases (15–20%)
  • Optimize and troubleshoot (15–20%)
  • Manage data (20–25%)
  • Implement security (15–20%)
  • Implement high availability (5–10%)

Pass4itsure Microsoft SQL Server 70-462 dumps exam (Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases) offers free DEMO to download. Multiple learning methods enable you to perceive the difficult concepts quickly and you can test your learning time to time through self-assessment feature in order to know how much you have already learnt and what need to be focused more. Candidates submit a 248-questions Microsoft recording in which they demonstrate the skills listed in the practical exam topics. The recordings receive a Pass or Fail score.

[Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-462 Dumps PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1H4CcMnBcyj0IAqqLhvMG7TM0K2eog1Bp

[Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-463 Dumps PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWanJic19DTmpWLUU

70-462 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-462 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-16)

QUESTION 1
You are a database administrator for a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance. You need to ensure that data can be migrated from a production server to two reporting servers with minimal data to ensure that data on the reporting server is always accessible which solution should you use?
A. Database snapshot
B. Log Shipping
C. Change Data Capture
D. AvailabilityGroups
70-462 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for SQL Server 2012?
A. 6GB of hard drive space
B. 1GB of memory
C. 1GHZ CPU speed
D. a graphics card with 2GB video memory
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 to develop a database application. You need to create an object that meets the
following requirements: Takes an input variable Returns a table of values Cannot be referenced within a view Which object should you use?
A. Scalar-valued function
B. Inline function
C. User-defined data type
D. Stored procedure
70-462 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 4
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The
transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting
database is only updated from the transactional database. The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table:
70-462 dumps
At 14:00 hours, you discover that pages 71, 520, and 713 on one of the database files are corrupted on the reporting
database. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal. What should you do?
A. Perform a partial restore.
B. Restore thelatestfullbackup, andrestore thelatest differentialbackup. Then, restore eachlog backuptaken before the
time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
C. Restore the latest full backup.
D. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup.
E. Perform a page restore.
F. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most
recentfull backup.
G. Perform a point-in-time restore.
H. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
Correct Answer: H
Explanation
Restores a file or filegroup in a multi-filegroup database. Note that under the simple recovery model, the file must belong to a read-only filegroup. After a full file restore, a differential file backup can b

QUESTION 5
You administer all the deployments of Microsoft SQL Server 2012 in your company. You need to ensure that an OLTP
database that includes up-to-the-minute reporting requirements can be off-loaded from the primary database to another server. You also need to be able to add indexes to the secondary database. Which configuration should you use?
A.
Two servers configured in different data centers
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
One server configured as an Active Secondary
B.
Two servers configured in the same data center
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode
One server configured as an Active Secondary
C.
Two servers configured in the same data center
A primary server configured to perform log-shipping every 10 minutes
A backup server configured as a warm standby
D.
Two servers configured in different data centers
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode
E.
Two servers configured on the same subnet
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
F.
SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform transactional replication
G.
SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform snapshot replication
H.
Two servers configured in a Windows Failover Cluster in the same data center
SQL Server configured as a clustered instance
70-462 pdf Correct Answer: F
Explanation
Reference:

QUESTION 6
What is the minimum recommended amount of RAM for SQL Server 2012 Enterprise?
A. 512 MB
B. 1 GB
C. 2 GB
D. 4 GB
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database. The database is in the Simple recovery mode. You schedule the following backup plan:
Full backup every day at midnight
Differential backups every hour on the hour, except at midnight
The database fails at 20:45 hours. You need to use SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) to begin restoring the database to a new server instance with a minimum amount of data loss. Which options should you select on the Options page of the Restore Database window? (To answer, configure the appropriate option or options in the dialog box in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
70-462 dumps
70-462 vce Correct Answer:
70-462 dumps

QUESTION 8
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server. When transaction logs grow, SQL Server must send an email message to the database administrators. You need to configure SQL Server to send the email messages. What should you configure?
A. SQL Mail
B. An Extended Events session
C. Alerts and operators in SQL Server Agent
D. Policies under Policy-Based Management
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database instance that uses transparent database encryption.
You plan to move the database from the current server to a new server by using Backup and Restore.
You need to ensure that the database can be restored to the new server. You also need to ensure that the database
remains encrypted at all times. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-462 dumps
Explanation

QUESTION 10
You have an index called Employee_IDX on the table Employees. Which of the following will rebuild this index online?
A. ALTER INDEX Employee_IDX ON Employees REBUILD WITH (ONLINE = ON);
B. CREATE INDEX Employee_IDX ON Employees REBUILD WITH (ONLINE = ON);
C. REBUILD ONLINE INDEX Employee_IDX ON Employees;
D. ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE Employee_IDX;
70-462 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which of the following file systems is supported for an SQL Server 2012 installation?
A. EXT4
B. NTFS
C. FAT16
D. EXT3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
You administer all the deployments of Microsoft SQL Server 2012 in your company. You have two servers in the same
data center that hosts your production database. You need to ensure that the database remains available if a catastrophic server failure or a disk failure occurs. You also need to maintain transactional consistency of the data across both servers. You need to achieve these goals without manual intervention. Which configuration should you use?
A. Two servers configured in a Windows Failover Cluster in the same data center SQL Server configured as a clustered instance
B. SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform transactional replication
C. Two servers configured in the same data center A primary server configured to perform log-shipping every 10
minutes A backup server configured as a warm standby
D. Two servers configured in different data centers SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit
Availability Mode One server configured as an Active Secondary
E. Two servers configured in the same data center SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit
Availability Mode One server configured as an Active Secondary
F. Two servers configured in different data centers SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous Commit
Availability Mode
G. SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform snapshot replication
H. Two servers configured on the same subnet SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
70-462 dumps Correct Answer: H
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which of the following SQL Server 2012 indexes is ordered independently of the actual physical order of the table data on which the index is based?
A. CLUSTERED
B. BITMAP
C. NONCLUSTERED
D. IND_ORDERED
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 14
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a
view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report. You need to display dates and times in
several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 15
You want to remove SQL Server Integration Services from a server running the Windows Server 2008 R2 operating
system that also has the Database Engine and SQL Server Analysis Services installed. Which of the following tools can
you use to accomplish this goal?
A. SQLServerManagementStudio
B. SQL Server Configuration Manager
C. Add/Remove Programs inControl Panel
D. SQL Server Installation Center
70-462 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 16
You are a database administrator for a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 environment. You want to deploy a new application that will scale out the workload to at least five different SQL Server instances. You need to ensure that for each copy of the database, users are able to read and write data that will then be synchronized between all of the database instances. Which feature should you use?
A. Database Mirroring
B. Peer-to-Peer Replication
C. Log Shipping
D. AvailabilityGroups
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
70-462 dumps

Do you maintain 100% Guarantee on Pass4itsure.com products?

Yes. With the development of IT technology in recent, many people choose to study IT technology which lead to lots of people join the IT industry. Our PDF of 70-462 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At Pass4itsure.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Preparation options

  • Instructor-led training
  • Exam prep videos
  • Self-paced training
  • Practice test
  • From the community
  • Books

The “Microsoft Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases (70-462 dumps): The Complete Course” is but one of three essential courses needed to pass in order to attain the most coveted Microsoft MCP, MCSA, MCSE certification that allow students to understand and realize the benefits of certification area. The Microsoft Certified Professional practice test software is a systematic arrangement of the entire curriculum to cover all the key areas and not to miss anyone of it in the short time. Candidates must pass both the 70-462 SQL Server exam and the 70-462 SQL Server practical exam to obtain certification.

70-462 dumps

Pass4itsure has developed the newest training solutions about the popular Microsoft 70-462 dumps guaranteed success exam, including some pertinent simulation tests. The opportunity of customizable learning is also offered in the most reliable Microsoft 70-462 practice test software so that you can customize the time to solve each question and to understand the type of each question. Pass4itsure will help you consolidate related knowledge and let you be well ready for Microsoft 70-462 dumps guaranteed success exam.

Don’t leave your fate to Microsoft 70-462 dumps e-books, you should sooner trust a Microsoft 70-462 dumps or some random Microsoft 70-462 exam download than to depend on a thick Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases paper book. So, the competition is in fierce in IT industry. With working in IT industry and having IT dream, you don’t expect to be caught up by other people which need you to improve your IT skills to prove your ability. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-462 dumps MCP, MCSA, MCSE certification study guide will be essential in facilitating the security integration of companies at large.

pass4itsure 70-462 dumps

Microsoft 70-462 dumps is the important exam in Microsoft certification exams which is well recognized. Discount Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-462 Dumps Demo Preparation Materials Are Based On The Real Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases Exam Video Study. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-462 Dumps Exam Youtube Free Online Test Here:

[Free Cisco Dumps&PDF] Most Hottest Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Microsoft Office 365 Exam Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements Youtube Training Download

How to study for the Microsoft 70-346 dumps exam? The Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements (70-346 Office 365) exam is a 211 questions assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP, MCSA certification. Most Hottest Microsoft 70-346 dumps Microsoft Office 365 exam Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements Youtube training download. “Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-346 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 70-346 exam. By passing 70-346 exam; you will become Microsoft MOS certified and can get higher paid jobs in IT market. To help you pass 70-346 certification; Real Pass4itsure introduced 70-346 corporate value pack that contain https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-346.html dumps real questions and answers, 70-346 online application and 70-346 practice exam software products.

[Free Microsoft 70-346 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWUW5ITWJYd1lUZHc

[Free Microsoft 70-410 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWemRUYmFFQVdJM1k 

70-346 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 181
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a workstation that runs Windows 8. You need to install the prerequisite components so that you can view mail protection reports on the workstation. Which two items must you install? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. SQL Server Analysis Services
B. Microsoft Connectivity Analyzer Tool
C. Microsoft Access 2013

D. .NET Framework 4.5
E. Microsoft Excel 2013
70-346 exam Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 182
An organization migrates to Office 365. The Office 365 administrator must be notified when Office 365 maintenance activities are planned. You need to configure the administrator’s computer to receive the notifications. What should you configure?
A. Office 365 Management Pack for System Center Operations Manager
B. Service requests
C. Service health page
D. Office 365 Service Health RSS Notifications feed
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 183
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You create a new retention policy that contains several retention tags. A user named Test5 has a client computer that runs Microsoft Office Outlook 2007. You install Microsoft Outlook 2010 on the client computer of Test5. Test5 reports that the new retention tags are unavailable from Outlook 2010. You verify that other users can use the new retention tags. You need to ensure that the new retention tags are available to Test5 from Outlook 2010. What should you do?
A. Instruct Test5 to repair the Outlook profile.
B. Modify the retention policy tags.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. Force directory synchronization.
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 184
Your company purchases an Office 365 plan. The company has an Active Directory Domain Services domain. User1 must manage Office 365 delegation for the company. You need to ensure that User1 can assign administrative roles to other users. What should you do?
A. Use a password administrator account to assign the role to User1.
B. Use a user management administrator account to assign the role to User1.
C. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the global administrator role.
D. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the password administrator role.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 185
Your company has 100 user mailboxes. The company purchases a subscription to Office 365 for professionals and small businesses. You need to enable the Litigation Hold feature for each mailbox. What should you do first?
A. Create a service request.
B. Modify the default retention policy.

C. Enable audit logging for all of the mailboxes.
D. Purchase a subscription to Office 365 for midsize business and enterprises.
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 186
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012. You plan to install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server. You need to install and configure all of the required roles. Which two roles should you install and configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. AD FS
B. Web Server (IIS)
C. Remote Access
D. Application Server
E. Network Policy and Access Service
F. Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS)
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 187
Product-quality-related costs are part of a total quality control program. A product-quality related cost incurred in detecting individual products that do not conform to specifications is an example of a n)
A. Prevention cost.
B. Appraisal cost.
C. External failure cost.
D. Opportunity cost.
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Quality-related costs can be subdivided into four categories: external failure costs, internalfailure costs, prevention costs, and appraisal costs. Appraisal costs embrace such activities asstatistical quality control programs, inspection, and testing. Thus, the cost of detectingnonconforming individual products is an appraisal cost.
QUESTION 188
The costs of quality that are incurred in detecting units of product that do not conform to product specifications are referred to as
A. Prevention costs.
B. Appraisal costs.
C. Rework costs.
D. Failure costs.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Appraisal embraces such activities as statistical quality control programs, inspection, andtesting. Appraisal costs are those costs such as test equipment maintenance and destructivetesting) incurred to detect which products do not conform to specifications.
QUESTION 189
The use of teams in total quality management TOM) is important because:
A. Well-managed teams can be highly creative and are able to address complex problemsbetter than individuals can.
B. Teams are quicker to make decisions, thereby helping to reduce cycle time.
C. Employee motivation is higher for team members than for individual contributors.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby alloying a company tobecome leaner and more profitable.
70-346 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Teams can use the diverse knowledge and skills of all team members. Employee involvementmeans training and empowering employees to harness their creativity for problem solving. Quality control circles are used to obtain input from employees and to locate the bestperspective on problem solving.
QUESTION 190
A means of limiting production delays caused by equipment breakdown and repair is to:
A. Schedule production based on capacity planning.
B. Plan maintenance activity based on an analysis of equipment repair work orders.
C. Pre-authorize equipment maintenance and overtime pa}.
D. Establish a preventive maintenance program for all production equipment.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Preventivemaintenance program will reduce equipment breakdowns and repairs.
QUESTION 191
If a manufacturer has established a limit on the number of defects that are tolerable in the final assembly of its product, which of the following quality control procedures should be employed?
I.Inspect completed goods for compliance with established tolerances.
II. Review sales returns for defects not detected during the final inspection process.
III. Compare materials and machinery specifications with original product designs.
IV. Establish a quality circle that includes management and subordinates to discuss labor efficiency.
A. I, III, and I.
B. II and III only.
C. I, II, and III.
D. III and IV only.
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Quality control procedures may be categorized according to the nature of the costs incurred. An organization incurs appraisal costs to ensure product quality. These costs include thecosts of inspection, testing, and statistical quality control programs. An organization alsoshould investigate the causes of sales returns, which represent an external failure cost. Furthermore, the organization should incur certain prevention costs, e.g., by reviewingequipment design and materials requirements.
QUESTION 192
Which statement best describes total quality management TOM)?
A. TOM emphasizes reducing the cast of inspection.
B. TOM emphasizes better statistical quality control techniques.
C. TOM emphasizes doing each job right the first time.
D. TOM emphasizes encouraging crass-functional teamwork.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
TOM establishes quality as an organizational objective and views it as a major component ofthe organization’s service to its customers. It emphasizes employee training and commitment,product/service design and production, and customer service. Ordinarily, the quality of aproduct or service is as important to customers as cast and timeliness. Superior productquality is not attained merely through more inspection, better statistical quality control, andcross-functional teamwork. Manufactures must make fundamental changes in the way theyproduce products and do each jab right the first time.
QUESTION 193
Quality cost indices are often used to measure and analyze the cost of maintaining or improving the level of quality. Such indices are computed by dividing the total cost of quality over a given period by some measure of activity during that period for example, sales dollars). The following cost data are available for a company for the month of March. The company’s quality cost index is calculated using total cost of quality divided by sales dollars.
Sales US $400,000
Direct materials cost 100,000
Direct labor cost 80,000
Testing and inspection cost 6,400
Scrap and rework cost 16,800
Quality planning cost 2,800
Cost of customer complaints and returns 4,000
The quality cost index for March is:
A. 7.5%
B. 6.5%
C. 22.0%
D. 5.9%
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The total cost of quality equals the sum of prevention costs quality planning), appraisal casts testing and inspection), internal failure casts scrap and rework), and external failure castscustomer complaints and returns), or U $30,000 $2,800 + $6,400 + $16,800 + $4,000). Thequality cost index equals the total casts of quality divided by sales. Thus, the quality castindex for March is 7.5% U $80,000 U $400,000).
QUESTION 194
The internal audit activity has undertaken an audit of the shipping and receiving department of a department store chain. The best engagement tool for this purpose most likely is:
A. Competitive benchmarking.
B. Strategic benchmarking.
C. Internal benchmarking.
D. Process benchmarking.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process function) benchmarking studies operations of organizations with similar processesregardless of industry. Thus, the benchmark need not be a competitor Or even a similarentity}. This method may introduce new ideas that provide a significant competitiveadvantage. The advantage of process benchmarking is that it permits a wider choice ofbenchmarked organizations. Thus, the best practices for a shipping and receiving functionmay not be found in the same industry}.
QUESTION 195
Using the balanced scorecard approach, an organization evaluates managerial performance based on
A. A single ultimate measure of operating results, such as residual income.
B. Multiple financial and nonfinancial measures.
C. Multiple nonfinancial measures only.
D. Multiple financial measures only.
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The trend in managerial performance evaluation is the balanced scorecard approach. Multiplemeasures of performance permit a determination as to whether a manager is achieving certainobjectives at the expense of others that may be equally or more important. These measuresmay be financial or nonfinancial and usually include items in four categories: I) financial; 2)customer; 3) internal business processes; and 4) learning, growth, and innovation.
QUESTION 196
On a balanced scorecard, which of the following is not a customer measure?
A. Market share.
B. Economic value added.
C. Service response time.
D. Warranty expense.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Customer measures include market share and its trend, service response time, deliveryperformance, warranty returns, expense, complaints, and survey results. Economic valueadded, or E1 A, is a financial measure.
QUESTION 197
Under the balanced scorecard concept, employee satisfaction and retention are measures used under which of the following perspectives?
A. Customer.
B. Internal business.
C. Learning and growth.
D. Financial.
70-346 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The balanced scorecard is an accounting report that connects the firm’s critical successfactors CSFs) determined in a strategic analysis to measures of its performance. CSFs arefinancial and nonfinancial measures. For the learning, growth, and innovation perspective,the CSFs may be development of new products, promptness of their introduction, humanresource development, morale, and competence of the workforce. Measures of employeesatisfaction, retention, and competence may include RD personnel qualifications, hours oftraining, skill set levels attained, personnel turnover, and personnel complaints and surveyresults.
QUESTION 198
On a balanced scorecard, which is more of an internal process measure than an external based measure?
A. Cycle time.
B. Profitability.
C. Customer satisfaction.
D. Market share.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cycle time is the manufacturing time to complete an order. Thus, cycle time is strictly relatedto internal processes. Profitability is a combination of internal and external considerations. Customer satisfaction and market share are related to how customers perceive a product andhow competitors react.
QUESTION 199
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of an innovative manufacturing company?
A. Emphasis on continuous improvement.
B. Responsiveness to the changing manufacturing environment.
C. Emphasis on existing products.
D. Improved customer satisfaction through product quality.

70-346 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Innovative companies are customer driven. Because customers demand ever better qualityand competitors are attempting to provide that quality, continuous improvement calledkaizen by the Japanese) is essential for such companies. Thus, the flaw of innovativeproducts and services must be continuous. Simply emphasizing existing products is not aneffective strategy for most organizations.

70-346 dumps

70-346 is Microsoft certification exam that covers all objectives of (Microsoft Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements Exam). “Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements”, also known as 70-346 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-346 dumps exam questions answers are updated (211 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 70-346 dumps is MCP, MCSA. All the products contain 211 questions and answers as multiple choice questions (MCQ’s) or single choice questions (SCQ’s). These Q&A’s are with 100% pass and money back guarantee within 60 days from purchase date. Pass4itsure recommends you to prepare https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-346.html dumps exam questions before you take actual exam.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/FUvPjVhvuog

 

[Free Microsoft Dumps&PDF] High Quality Microsoft 70-412 Dumps Windows Server 2012 Exam Preparation Materials Youtube Study Online

Are you going to prepare Microsoft 70-412 dumps exam? The Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services (70-412 Windows Server) exam is a 424 questions assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP, MCSA, MCSE certification. High quality Microsoft 70-412 dumps Windows Server 2012 exam preparation materials Youtube study online. “Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-412 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 70-412 exam. Even if you are young learners, you can master 70-412 real dumps easily. Above are the features which make our https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-412.html dumps training material a must purchase and you can also make a wise decision of purchasing Microsoft 70-412 dumps if you want to achieve full marks in MCP-MCSA-MCSE Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services test.

[Free Microsoft 70-412 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWTVhyb3I4T3F4blE

[Free Cisco 300-370 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVVhaZUpnZWRvOHM

  • Most Updated 70-412 Windows Server 2012 R2 Practice Exam Questions.
  • Pass the MCP-MCSA-MCSE 70-412 dumps questions with our 100% Money Back Guarantee
  • 70-412 exam dumps verified by IT experts
  • Windows Server 2012 R2 70-412 practice tests are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy which can make you succeed in the 70-412 exam.

70-412 dumps
Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-412 Dumps Exam Q&As:
QUESTION 69
You have a server named SCI that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Shadow copies are enabled on all volumes. You need to delete a specific shadow copy. The solution must minimize server downtime. Which tool should you use?
A. Shadow
B. Diskshadow
C. Wbadmin
D. Diskpart
70-412 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DiskShadow.exe is a tool that exposes the functionality offered by the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS). The diskshadow command delete shadows deletes shadow copies.
70-412 dumps
QUESTION 70
You have 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create a Windows PowerShell script that registers each server in Windows Azure Backup and sets an encryption passphrase. Which two PowerShell cmdlets should you run in the script? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. New-OBPolicy
B. New-OBRetentionPolicy
C. Add-OBFileSpec
D. Start-OBRegistration
E. Set OBMachineSetting
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
D: Start-OBRegistration
Registers the current computer with Windows Azure Online Backup using the credentials (user- name and password) created during enrollment.
E: The Set-OBMachineSetting cmdlet sets a OBMachineSetting object for the server that in- cludes proxy server settings for accessing the internet, network bandwidth throttling settings, and the encryption passphrase that is required to decrypt the files during recovery to another server.
Incorrect:
Not C: TheAdd-OBFileSpeccmdlet adds theOBFileSpecobject, which specifies the items to in- clude or exclude from a backup, to the backup policy (OBPolicyobject). TheOBFileSpecobject can include or exclude multiple files, folders, or volumes. T Reference: Start-OBRegistration; Set OBMachineSetting
QUESTION 71
You have 30 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the servers are backed up daily by using Windows Azure Online Backup. You need to perform an immediate backup of all the servers to Windows Azure Online Backup. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run on each server?
A. Get-OBPolicy | StartOBBackup
B. Start-OBRegistration | StartOBBackup
C. Get-WBPolicy | Start-WBBackup
D. Get-WBBackupTarget | Start-WBBackup
70-412 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This example starts a backup job using a policy.
Windows PowerShell
PS C:\> Get-OBPolicy | Start-OBBackup
Incorrect:
Not B. Registers the current computer to Windows Azure Backup.
Not C. Not using Azure
Not D. Not using Azure
Reference: Start-OBBackup
QUESTION 72
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and is used for testing. A developer at your company creates and installs an unsigned kernel-mode driver on Server1. The developer reports that Server1 will no longer start. You need to ensure that the developer can test the new driver. The solution must minimize the amount of data loss. Which Advanced Boot Option should you select?
A. Disable Driver Signature Enforcement
B. Disable automatic restart on system failure
C. Last Know Good Configuration (advanced)
D. Repair Your Computer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. By default, 64-bit versions of Windows Vista and later versions of Windows will load a ker- nel-mode driver only if the kernel can verify the driver signature. However, this default behavior can be disabled to facilitate early driver development and non-automated testing.

70-412 dumps
Incorrect:
Not B. specifies that Windows automatically restarts your computer when a failure occurs Not C. Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed Not D. Removes or repairs critical windows files, Developer would not be able to test the driver as needed and some file loss
Reference: Installing Windows Server 2012
QUESTION 73
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. When you install a custom Application on Server1 and restart the server, you receive the follow- ing error message: “The Boot Configuration Data file is missing some required information.
File: \Boot\BCD
Error code: 0x0000034.”

You start Server1 by using Windows RE. You need to ensure that you can start Windows Server 2012 R2 on Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. Bootsect
B. Bootim
C. Bootrec
D. Bootcfg
70-412 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Bootrec.exe tool to troubleshoot “Bootmgr Is Missing” issue. The /ScanOs option scans all disks for installations that are compatible with Windows Vista or Windows 7. Additionally, this option displays the entries that are currently not in the BCD store. Use this option when there are Windows Vista or Windows 7 installations that the Boot Manager menu does not list.
* Error code 0x0000034 while booting.
Resolution:
1. Put the Windows Windows 7 installation disc in the disc drive, and then start the computer.
2. Press any key when the message indicating “Press any key to boot from CD or DVD …”. appears.
3. Select a language, time, currency, and a keyboard or another input method. Then click Next.
4. Click Repair your computer.
5. Click the operating system that you want to repair, and then click Next.
6. In the System Recovery Options dialog box, click Command Prompt.
7. Type Bootrec /RebuildBcd, and then press ENTER.
Incorrect:
Not A. Bootsect.exe updates the master boot code for hard disk partitions to switch between BOOTMGR and NTLDR. You can use this tool to restore the boot sector on your computer. This tool replaces FixFAT and FixNTFS.
Not D. The bootcfg command is a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 utility that modifies the Boot.ini file.
Reference: Bootsect Command-Line Options

QUESTION 74
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?
A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
A. Cost variance (CV)
B. Cost performance index (CPI)
C. Budget at completion (BAC)
D. Variance at completion (VAC)
70-412 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
A. Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.
C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams.
D. Activity attributes and resource calendars.
70-412 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
70-412 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management
70-412 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
A. Change control tools
B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:
A. Work packages.
B. Accepted deliverables.
C. The WBS dictionary.
D. The scope baseline.
70-412 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
A. Project Cost Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Integration Management
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. Completion
70-412 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
70-412 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
When should quality planning be performed?
A. While developing the project charter
B. In parallel with the other planning processes
C. As part of a detailed risk analysis
D. As a separate step from the other planning processes
70-412 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
A. The best use of communication methods.
B. An efficient and effective communication flow.
C. Project costs to be reduced.
D. The best use of communication technology.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 91
The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:
A. Human resource management plan.
B. Activity resource requirements.
C. Personnel assessment tools,
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
70-412 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
A. Control Schedule.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Activities.
D. Develop Schedule.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Work performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Context diagrams

70-412 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
The organization’s perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
A. Responses
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Attitude
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
A. change requests
B. enterprise environmental factors
C. the stakeholder management plan
D. the change log
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
70-412 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Source selection criteria.
B. Market research.
C. A stakeholder register.
D. A records management system.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks
70-412 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 99
Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
A. Close Project or Phase

B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
70-412 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
A regression line is used to estimate:
A. Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
C. The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.
D. The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
An input to Conduct Procurements is:
A. Independent estimates.
B. Selected sellers.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Resource calendars.
70-412 exam 
Correct Answer: C

70-412 dumps

From now on, Pass4itsure will solve all your worries about the 70-412 real dumps. “Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services”, also known as 70-412 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. The Pass4itsure of 70-412 dumps contain different perspective materials. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-412 dumps exam questions answers are updated (424 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 70-412 dumps is MCP, MCSA, MCSE. Having it, you will have the key to pass https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-412.html dumps and will have unprecedented confidence.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/6F7RTRwNTuQ

[Free Microsoft Dumps&PDF] New Microsoft 070-488 Dumps Practice Exam Microsoft SharePoint Applications Certification Free Download

What is the best way to pass the Microsoft 070-488 dumps exam? The Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation (070-488) exam is a 131 Q&As assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP certification.”Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-488 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 070-488 exam. New Microsoft 070-488 dumps practice exam Microsoft SharePoint Applications certification free download. Then choosing Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-488 dumps training materials now. Microsoft 070-488 dumps study guide provides you everything you will need to take Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/070-488.html dumps certification examination.

[Free Microsoft 70-695 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWYS1lM3BQOC1zaFU

[Free Microsoft 70-698 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWLW53eEpJQ2FkSk0

070-488 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 070-488 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the CourierMobile app determines whether the franchisee owns the account. What should you do?
A. Use OAuth and App only security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/ sitecollection/web/list scope URI.
B. Use OAuth and App+User security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/
sitecollection scope URI.
C. Use SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in
the site collection.
D. Use the SharePoint user credentials of the bicycle messenger to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
070-488 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites. You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites. What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: The sites have been deleted.They need to be restored.A and B are wrong because modifying the Recycle Bin settings after the sites are deleted will have no effect on the deleted sites.
QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the CloudManager app can write route progress check-ins to the courier’s microfeed. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensure that SP.RequestExecutor.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
B. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Manage permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
C. Ensure that the MySite host is provisioned for each franchisee.
D. Ensure that all cookies are made available between the My Site and the CloudManager app domain.
E. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Write permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
F. Ensure that SP.UserProfiles.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
070-488 dumps Correct Answer: ABDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
/ Business Requirements
The FranchiseMonitor app must allow a Franchise employee to upload Appointments.csv to a SharePoint document library in each Franchisee site collection, and send Appointments.csv to the CloudManager app. / The FranchiseMonitor app must display the courier’s location on the bicycle courier’s microfeed on the SharePoint farm if the courier has remained stationary for more than three minutes. / The CloudManager app must implement business logic that parses Appointments.csv and geo- location data and sends Appointments or Appointment cancellations to the CourierMobile app.
QUESTION 4
You need to implement the custom claims provider for the SharePoint farm. Which code segments should you implement? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
070-488 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
MyClaimsProvider.es

070-488 dumps

QUESTION 5
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition and permissions at the site level

D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
070-488 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives. For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From scenario:
* The CourierMobile app receives Microsoft Outlook appointments (D) and Outlook appointment cancellations (E) from the CloudManager app. The appointments include the address of the location for pick-up or drop-off.
QUESTION 7
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app. Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
070-488 vce Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: SQL Azure in the cloud. lightweight version of Express that has the same programmability features, but
D: LocalDB is a it runs in user mode and has a fast, zero-configuration installation and a short list of prerequisites.
From scenario:
* CourierMobile App
The CourierMobile app must be able to capture more than 30 million data points of location data daily as they occur and upload the location data to the cloud when connected to the Internet.

* Cloudmanager App
/ The CloudManager app must elastically scale to capture courier location data as the number of bicycle couriers increases or decreases. / The CloudManager app must process bicycle courier location data from a data store capable of storing more than 30 million items.

You can compare Microsoft 070-488 dumps practice exam with any of one available in the market. Trust on Microsoft 070-488 dumps exam training materials for more valuable guidelines in your Microsoft 070-488 test preparation just sign up and get highly interactive Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/070-488.html dumps test questions.

[Free Microsoft Dumps&PDF] High Quality Microsoft 070-462 Dumps Practice Exam Microsoft SQL Server Certification Covers All Key Points

Is going for the brain dumps for Microsoft 070-462 dumps the right way? The Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases (070-462 SQL Server) exam is a 248 Q&As assessment  in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP, MCSA, MCSE certification. “Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-462 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 070-462 exam. High quality Microsoft 070-462 dumps practice exam Microsoft SQL Server Certification covers all key points. So Pass4itsure.com is a very good website which not only provide good quality https://www.pass4itsure.com/070-462.html dumps products, but also a good after-sales service.

[Free Microsoft 70-761 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWODNxSmhVTGxDRUU

[Free Microsoft 070-463 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWanJic19DTmpWLUU

070-462 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 070-462 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 30 – (Topic 1)  You are migrating a database named Orders to a new server that runs Microsoft SQL
Server 2012. You attempt to add the [Corpnet\User1] login to the database. However, you receive the following error message: “User already exists in current database.” You need to configure the [Corpnet\User1] login to be able to access the Orders database and retain the original permissions. You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum required permissions. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. DROP USER [User1]; CREATE USER [Corpnet\User1] FOR LOGIN [Corpnet\User1]; ALTER ROLE [db_owner] ADD MEM3ER [Corpnet\User1];
B. ALTER SERVER RCLS Isysadmin] ADD MEMBER [Corpnet\User1];
C. ALTER USER [Corpnet\User1] WITH LOGIN [Corpnet\User1];
D. ALTER ROLE [db owner] ADD MEMBBR [Corpnet\User1];
070-462 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 31 – (Topic 1)  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You configure Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) on the Orders database by using the following statements:
070-462 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
Question No : 32 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that has multiple databases. You need to ensure that users are unable to create stored procedures that begin with sp_. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
070-462 dumps
070-462 dumps
Question No : 33 – (Topic 1)  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You provide temporary securityadmin access to User1 to the database server. You need to know if User1 adds logins to securityadmin. Which server-level audit action group should you use?
A. SERVER_STATE_CHANGE_GROUP
B. SERVER_PRINCIPAL_IMPERSONATION_GROUP
C. SUCCESSFUL_LOGIN_GROUP
D. SERVER_ROLE_MEMBER_CHANGE_GROUP
070-462 dumps Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
SERVER_STATE_CHANGE_GROUP
This event is raised when the SQL Server service state is modified. Equivalent to the Audit Server Starts and Stops Event Class. SERVER_PRINCIPAL_IMPERSONATION_GROUP 
This event is raised when there is an impersonation within server scope, such as EXECUTE AS <login>. Equivalent to the Audit Server Principal Impersonation Event Class.
SUCCESSFUL_LOGIN_GROUP Indicates that a principal has successfully logged in to SQL Server. Events in this class are raised by new connections or by connections that are reused from a connection pool. Equivalent to the Audit Login Event Class. SERVER_ROLE_MEMBER_CHANGE_GROUP This event is raised whenever a login is added or removed from a fixed server role. This event is raised for the sp_addsrvrolemember and sp_dropsrvrolemember stored procedures. Equivalent to the Audit Add Login to Server Role Event Class.
 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance.
Question No : 34 – (Topic 1)  You need to stop a blocking process that has an SPID of 64 without stopping other
processes What should you do?
A. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement: EXECUTE sp_KillSPID 64
B. Restart the SQL Server service.
C. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement: KILL 64
D. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement: ALTER SESSION KILL ’64’
Answer: C
Question No : 35 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server. A variety of issues occur from time to time in the production environment. You need to identify the appropriate tool for each issue. Which tool or tools should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate tool or tools to the correct issue or issues in the answer area. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
070-462 dumps

Question No : 36 – (Topic 1) You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. Users report that an application that accesses the database displays an error, but the error does not provide meaningful information. No entries are found in the SQL Server log or Windows event logs related to the error. You need to identify the root cause of the issue by retrieving the error message. What should you do?
A. Create an Extended Events session by using the sqlserver.error_reported event.
B. Create a SQL Profiler session to capture all ErrorLog and EventLog events.
C. Flag all stored procedures for recompilation by using sp_recompile.
D. Execute sp_who.
070-462 pdf Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server. One of the databases on the server supports a highly active OLTP application. Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data into the application.
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)  You need to identify which queries are taking longer than 1 second to run over an extended period of time. What should you do?
A. use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of more than 1,000.
B. Use sp_configure to set a value for blocked process threshold. Create an extended event session.
C. Use the Job Activity monitor to review all processes that are actively running. Review the Job History to find out the duration of each step.
D. Run the sp_who command from a query window.
E. Run the DBCC TRACEON 1222 command from a query window and review the SQL Server event log.
Answer: E
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
Verified the SQL Profiler and DBCC answers as correct. However, while Profiler will show  this information, the best practice with Profiler is to use it short-term. The question specifically states “over an extended period of time”. That means Profiler wouldn’t be the best tool for this scenario. Therefore, DBCC would be the best answer.

070-462 dumps

Pass4itsure’s products can not only help customers 100% pass their first time to attend Microsoft certification 070-462 dumps training materials, but also provide a one-year of free online update service for them, which will delivery the latest exam materials to customers at the first time to let them know the latest https://www.pass4itsure.com/070-462.html dumps certification exam information.

 

[Free Microsoft Dumps&PDF] Latest Microsoft 70-773 Dumps Vce Exam Question Preparation Materials Are Based On The Real Exam Video Study

How you can prepare Microsoft 70-773 dumps exam in just one week? “Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)” is the name of Microsoft 70-773 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Latest Microsoft 70-773 dumps vce exam question preparation materials are based on the real exam video study. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-773 dumps exam questions answers are updated (102 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-773 dumps is Microsoft Certification. It is well known that latest https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-773.html dumps test is the hot exam of Microsoft certification. Pass4itsure offer you all the Q&As of the Microsoft 70-773 exam question and answers.

Exam Code: 70-773
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Q&As: 102

[Free Microsoft 70-773 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWLXFnb1VfZllDZ1k

[Free Microsoft 70-774 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWZTFRbi1ZeVRzdDQ

70-773 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-773 Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 82
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>

using namespace std;
class BaseC
{
int *ptr;
public:
BaseC() { ptr = new int(10);}
BaseC(int i) { ptr = new int(i); }
~BaseC() { delete ptr; }
void Print() { cout << *ptr; }
};
int main()
{
BaseC *o = new BaseC(5);
o?>Print();
}
A. It prints: 5
B. It prints: 10
C. It prints: 1
D. It prints: 0
70-773 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 83
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
const char *s;
char str[] = “Hello “;
s = str;
while(*s) {
cout << *++s;
*s++;
}
return 0;
}
A. It will print:”el ”
B. The code will not compile.
C. It will print:”Hello ”
D. It will print garbage value
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;

class A {
public :
void print() {
cout << “A “;
}
};
class B {
public :
void print() {
cout << “B “;
}
};
int main() {
B sc[2];
A *bc = (A*)sc;
for (int i=0; i<2;i++)
(bc++)->print();
return 0;
}
A. It prints: A A
B. It prints: B B
C. It prints: A B
D. It prints: B A
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 85

What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int x,y=10;
float f;
f = 5.20;
x=(int) f;
cout << x <<“, “;
f=float (y);
cout << f;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 5, 10
B. It prints: 5.2, 10
C. It prints: 5.20, 10.0
D. It prints: 5.2, 10.00
70-773 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 86
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>

using namespace std;
int op(int x, int y)
{
return x?y;
}
int op(int x, float y)
{
return x+y;
}
int main()
{
int i=1, j=2, k, l;
float f=0.23;
k = op(i, j);
l = op(j, f);
cout<< k << “,” << l;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: ?1,?1
B. It prints: ?1,3
C. It prints: ?1,2
D. Compilation fails
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 87
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. A function can be defined inside another function
B. A function may have any number of return statements each returning different values.
C. A function can return floating point value
D. In a function two return statements should never occur.
70-773 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 88
Which code, inserted at line 15, generates the output “5 Bob”?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
class B;
class A {
int age;
public:
A () { age=5; };
friend void Print(A &ob, B &so);
};
class B {
string name;
public:

B () { name=”Bob”; };
//insert code here
};
void Print(A &ob, B &so) {
cout<<ob.age << ” ” << so.name;
}
int main () {
A a;
B b;
Print(a,b);
return 0;
}
A. friend void Print(A ob, B so);
B. friend void Print(A &ob, B &so);
C. friend void Print(A *ob, B *so);
D. None of these
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 89
What is the output of the program if characters ‘t’, ‘e’, ‘s’ and ‘t’ enter are supplied as input?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>

using namespace std;
int main()
{
string s;
getline( cin, s );
cout << s << ” ” << s.length();
return( 0 );
}
A. It prints: test 4
B. It prints: test
C. It prints: test 5
D. It prints: 4
70-773 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 90
What happens if character 3 is entered as input?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class A {
public:
int i;
};
int main () {
int c;

A obj;
obj.i = 5;
cin >> c;
try
{
switch (c)
{
case A. throw 20;
case B. throw 5.2f;
case C. throw obj;
default: cout<<“No exception”;
}
}
catch (int e)
{ cout << “int exception. Exception Nr. ” << e; }
catch (A e)
{ cout << “object exception. Exception Nr. ” << e.i; }
catch (…)
{ cout << “An exception occurred.”; }
return 0;
}
A. It prints: object exception. Exception Nr. 5
B. It prints: int exception. Exception Nr.
C. It prints: An exception occurred
D. It prints: No exception
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 91
Point out an error in the program.
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
char s1[] = “Hello”;
char s2[] = “world”;
char *const ptr = s1;
*ptr = ‘a’;
ptr = s2;
return 0;
}
A. No error
B. Cannot modify a const object
C. Compilation error at line 9
D. None of these
70-773 exam Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 92
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;

int main()
{
int x=20;
int *ptr;
ptr = &x;
cout<<*ptr;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 20
B. It prints: 0
C. It prints address of ptr
D. It prints: 2
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 93
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int x=0;
int *ptr;

ptr = &x;
cout<<x<<” “<<*ptr;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 0 0
B. It prints address of ptr
C. It prints: 1
D. It prints: 2
70-773 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 94
Given:
#include <iostream>
#include <exception>
using namespace std;
int main () {
try
{
int * myarray= new int[1000];
}
catch (bad_alloc&)

{
cout << “Error allocating memory”;
}
catch (exception& e)
{
cout << “Standard exception”;
}
catch (…)
{
cout << “Unknown exception”;
}
return 0;
}
What will happen if we use the operator “new” and the memory cannot be allocated?
A. It prints: Error allocating memory
B. It prints: Standard exception
C. It prints: Unknown exception
D. Compilation error
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 95
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;

struct {
int x;
char c;
union {
float f;
int i;
};
} s;
int main (int argc, const char * argv[])
{
s.x=10;
s.i=0;
cout << s.i << ” ” << s.x;
}
A. It prints: 0 10
B. It prints: 11
C. Compilation error
D. None of these
70-773 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 96
What is the output of the program?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int main () {
string s1 = “Hello”, s2 = “World”;
s2 = s1 + s2;
cout << s2;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: Hello
B. It prints: HelloWorld
C. It prints: WorldHello
D. It prints: WorldHelloWorld
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 97
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int *t;

t = new int[2];
for (int i=0; i<2; i++) {
t[i]=0;
}
cout << t[1];
}
A. It prints: 0
B. It prints: 1
C. It prints: 2
D. It prints: 3
70-773 vce Answer: A

At Pass4itsure we strive hard to provide you the full development of a balanced pass 70-773 dumps Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R exam successfully. We aim that you get the Microsoft R Server https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-773.html dumps that is actually required to go through 70-773 Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R exam.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/M8enQKBVUFA

[Free Cisco Dumps&PDF] Prepare for the Most Reliable Microsoft 70-698 Dumps Study Guide Youtube Training With Low Price

How I get easy approach to Microsoft 70-698 dumps? “Installing and Configuring Windows 10” is the name of Microsoft 70-698 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Prepare for the most reliable Microsoft 70-698 dumps study guide youtube training with low price. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-698 dumps exam questions answers are updated (130 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-698 dumps is MCSA. All of Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-698.html dumps questions include detailed explanations so you’ll know why the correct answer is correct, and why the incorrect answers are incorrect.

Exam Code: 70-698
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows 10
Q&As: 130

[Free Microsoft 70-698 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWLW53eEpJQ2FkSk0

[Free Microsoft 70-765 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWV3l0WFp4azdOVlU

70-698 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-698 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 35
Your EC2-Based Multi-tier application includes a monitoring instance that periodically makes application – level read only requests of various application components and if any of those fail more than three times 30 seconds calls CloudWatch lo fire an alarm, and the alarm notifies your operations team by email and SMS of a possible application health problem. However, you also need to watch the watcher -the monitoring instance itself – and be notified if it becomes un- healthy. Which of the following Is a simple way to achieve that goal?
A. Run another monitoring instance that pings the monitoring instance and fires a could watch alarm mat notifies your operations teamshould the primary monitoring instance become un- healthy.
B. Set a Cloud Watch alarm based on EC2 system and instance status checks and have the alarm notify your operations team of anydetected problem with the monitoring instance.
C. Set a Cloud Watch alarm based on the CPU utilization of the monitoring instance and nave the alarm notify your operations team if C r the CPU usage exceeds 50% few more than one minute: then have your monitoring application go into a CPU-bound loop should itDetect any ap- plication problems.
D. Have the monitoring instances post messages to an SOS queue and then dequeue those mes- sages on another instance should D c- the queue cease to have new messages, the second in- stance should first terminate the original monitoring instance start anotherbackup monitoring in- stance and assume (he role of the previous monitoring instance and beginning adding messages to the SOSqueue.
70-698 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 36
You have decided to change the Instance type for instances running In your application tier that are using Auto Scaling.
In which area below would you change the instance type definition?
A. Auto Scaling launch configuration
B. Auto Scaling group
C. Auto Scaling policy
D. Auto Scaling tags
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 37
You are attempting to connect to an instance in Amazon VPC without success You have already verified that the VPC has an Internet Gateway (IGW) the instance has an associated Elastic IP (EIP) and correct security group rules are in place.
Which VPC component should you evaluate next?
A. The configuration of a MAT instance
B. The configuration of the Routing Table

C. The configuration of the internet Gateway (IGW)
D. The configuration of SRC’DST checking
70-698 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 38
You are tasked with the migration of a highly trafficked Node JS application to AWS In order to comply with organizational standards Chef recipes must be used to configure the application servers that host this application and to support application lifecycle events. Which deployment option meets these requirements while minimizing administrative burden?
A. Create a new stack within Opsworks add the appropriate layers to the stack and deploy the ap
plication
B. Create a new application within Elastic Beanstalk and deploy this application to a new envi- ronment
C. Launch a Mode JS server from a community AMI and manually deploy the application to the launched EC2 instance
D. Launch and configure Chef Server on an EC2 instance and leverage the AWS CLI to launch
application servers and configure those instances using Chef.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 39
You have been asked to automate many routine systems administrator backup and recovery ac- tivities Your current plan is to leverage AWS-managed solutions as much as possible and auto- mate the rest with the AWS CU and scripts. Which task would be best accomplished with a script?
A. Creating daily EBS snapshots with a monthly rotation of snapshots
B. Creating daily ROS snapshots with a monthly rotation of snapshots
C. Automatically detect and stop unused or underutilized EC2 instances
D. Automatically add Auto Scaled EC2 instances to an Amazon Elastic Load Balancer
70-698 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Your organization’s security policy requires that all privileged users either use frequently rotated passwords or one-time access credentials in addition to username/password. Which two of the following options would allow an organization to enforce this policy for AWS users? Choose 2 answers
A. Configure multi-factor authentication for privileged 1AM users
B. Create 1AM users for privileged accounts
C. Implement identity federation between your organization’s Identity provider leveraging the 1AM Security Token Service
D. Enable the 1AM single-use password policy option for privileged users

Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 41
What are characteristics of Amazon S3? Choose 2 answers
A. Objects are directly accessible via a URL
B. S3 should be used to host a relational database
C. S3 allows you to store objects or virtually unlimited size
D. S3 allows you to store virtually unlimited amounts of data
E. S3 offers Provisioned IOPS
70-698 vce Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

Before candidates decide to use Pass4itsure 70-698 dumps exam study guide, you can check the https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-698.html dumps questions quality by downloading free demo from our website directly.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/3FKYheYzpkI

[Free Microsoft Dumps&PDF] New Release Microsoft 70-463 Dumps Practice Exam Questions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Covers All Key Points (From Google Drive)

Why you really need Microsoft 70-763 dumps? “Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012” is the name of Microsoft 70-463 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. New release Microsoft 70-463 dumps practice exam questions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012 covers all key points. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-463 dumps exam questions answers are updated (230 Q&As) are verified by experts.

With some highly professional and competent team who creates study material for you, you will have https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-463.html dumps exam materials that are so effective.

Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 20, 2017
Q&As: 230

[Free Microsoft 70-463 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWSHdVQTJwd19hV3c

[Free Microsoft 70-414 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWT1R2UXFwcFMwZEE

The associated certifications of 70-463 dumps is Microsoft SQL Server 2012.

70-463 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-463 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 33 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are building a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data from all files that are automatically copied to a directory each night through an external FTP process. You need to load data from all copied files to a destination table in SQL Server. Which three steps should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate 70-463 exam actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

70-463 dumps

Question No : 34 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
from a relational database to a data warehouse. You are importing data from a relational table named Projects. The table has change data capture enabled on all columns. You need to process only the most recent values from rows that have been inserted or updated since the previous execution of the package. Which query should you use as the data source?
70-463 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D

Question No : 35 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a
data warehouse.
70-463 dumps

You need to establish the correct order for loading each table to maximize parallel
processing.Which order should you use?
A.
1. DimCurrency, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
2. DimOrganization
3. FactFinance
B.
1. DimCurrency, DimOrganization in parallel
2. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. FactFinance
C.
1. DimCurrency, FactFinance in parallel
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
D.
1. FactFinance
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. DimCurrency
E.
1. DimCurrency
2. DimOrganization
3. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
4. FactFinance
70-463 dumps Answer: A
Explanation: References:

Question No : 36 – (Topic 1) You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uploads a file to
a table named Orders in a SQL Azure database. The company’s auditing policies have the following requirements:
An entry must be written to a dedicated SQL Server log table named OrderLog. The entry must be written as soon as the file upload task completes.
You need to meet the company’s policy requirements.
Which event handler should you use?
A. OnPostExecute
B. OnWarning
C. OnExecStatusChanged
D. OnVariableValueChanged
Answer: A
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1) You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three
Execute SQL tasks and no other tasks. The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have their TransactionOption property set to Supported. You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks will roll back
their changes. What should you do?
A. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C. Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
D. Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
70-463 pdf Answer: D
Reference:
Question No : 38 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package uses custom functionality that accesses a SQL Server database. The custom functionality must be implemented by using Language Integrated Query (LINQ). You need to ensure that the LINQ code can be debugged at design time. What should you select from the SSIS Toolbox? (To answer, drag the appropriate item to
the correct location in the answer area.)

70-463 dumps

Question No : 39 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are designing an extract, transform, load (ETL) process with SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS). Two packages, Package A and Package B, will be designed. Package A will execute Package B. Both 70-463 vce packages must reference a file path corresponding to an input folder where files will be located for further processing. You need to design a solution so that the file path can be easily configured with the least administrative and development effort. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)70-463 dumps
Question No : 40 – (Topic 1) You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a
Type 3 Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD). You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic.
What should you use?
A. a Script component
B. an SCD component
C. an Aggregate component
D. a Merge component
Answer: D
Question No : 41 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project by using the Project Deployment model. The project contains many packages. It is deployed on a server named Development!. The project will be deployed to several servers that run SQL Server 2012. The project accepts one required parameter. The data type of the parameter is a string. A SQL Agent job is created that will call the master.dtsx package in the project. A job step is created for the SSIS package. The job must pass the value of an SSIS Environment Variable to the project parameter. The value of the Environment Variable must be configured differently on each server that runs 70-463 exam SQL Server. The value of the Environment Variable must provide the server name to the project parameter. You need to configure SSIS on the Development1 server to pass the Environment Variable to the package. Which four actions should you perform in sequence by using SQL Server Management
Studio? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

70-463 dumps

Question No : 42 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
into a data warehouse. You add an Execute SQL task to the control flow. The task must execute a simple INSERT statement. The task has the following requirements: The INSERT statement must use the value of a string package variable. The variable name is StringVar. The Execute SQL task must use an OLE DB Connection Manager.
In the Parameter Mapping tab of the Execute SQL task, StringVar has been added as the only parameter.
You must configure the SQLStatement property of the Execute SQL task.
Which SQL statement should you use?
A. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES ($StringVar)
B. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (0)
C. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (@0)
D. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (?)
Answer: D
Explanation: References:
Question No : 43 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are building a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load product data sourced from a SQL Azure database to a data warehouse. Before the product data is loaded, you create a batch record by using an Execute SQL task named Create Batch. After successfully loading the product data, you use another Execute SQL task named Set Batch Success to mark the batch as successful.
70-463 dumps
You need to create and execute an Execute SQL task to mark the batch as failed if either
the Create Batch or Load Products task fails. Which three steps should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

70-463 dumps

70-463 pdf Answer:
70-463 dumps

But, just make sure that you landed in a reliable and right Microsoft 70-463 dumps vendor which can give you updated and relevant resources. Pass4itsure to name a few are some of the proven and reliable https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-463.html dumps that you may opt to.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/LDY-4kuGU20

[Free Microsoft Dumps&PDF] Money Back Guarantee Free Microsoft Azure 70-534 Dumps Practice Test Exam Certification Youtube Training (From Google Drive)

How can I clear the Microsoft exam 70-534 dumps on Microsoft Certification? “Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions” is the name of Microsoft 70-534 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Money back guarantee free Microsoft Azure 70-534 dumps practice test exam certification youtube training.

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-534 dumps exam questions answers are updated (249 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 70-534 dumps is Microsoft Specialist Microsoft Azure. Passing the Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-534.html dumps certification exam has never been easier, but with use of our preparation material, it is simple and easy.

Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Updated: Sep 16, 2017
Q&As: 249

[Free Microsoft 70-534 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWdmxvVW43RmxVM2M

[Free Microsoft 70-695 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWYS1lM3BQOC1zaFU

Design Azure Resource Manager (ARM) networking (5 – 10%)

  • Design Azure virtual networks – Leverage Azure networking services: implement load balancing using Azure Load Balancer and Azure Traffic Manager; define DNS, DHCP, and IP addressing configuration; define static IP reservations; apply Network Security Groups (NSGs) and User Defined Routes (UDRs); deploy Microsoft 70-534 Dumps Azure Application Gateway
  • Describe Azure VPN and ExpressRoute architecture and design – Describe Azure P2S and S2S VPN; leverage Azure VPN and ExpressRoute in network architecture

70-534 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-534 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
You need to design the system that alerts project managers to data changes in the contractor informaton
app.
Which service should you use?
A. Azure Mobile Service
B. Azure Service Bus Message Queueing
C. Azure Queue Messaging
D. Azure Notfcaton Hub
70-534 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
You need to prepare the implementaton of 70-534 dumps data storage for the contractor informaton app.
What should you?
A. Create a storage account and implement multple data parttons.
B. Create a Cloud Service and a Mobile Service. Implement Entty Group transactons.
C. Create a Cloud Service and a Deployment group. Implement Entty Group transactons.
D. Create a Deployment group and a Mobile Service. Implement multple data parttons.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You need to design a data storage strategy for each applicaton.
In the table below, identfy the strategy that you should use for each applicaton. Make only one selecton in
each column.
Hot Area:

70-534 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-534 dumps

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a soluton for publishing one of the company websites to Azure and confguring it
for remote debugging.
Which two actons should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the soluton.
A. From Visual Studio, atach the debugger to the soluton.
B. Set the applicaton logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
C. Set the Web Server logging level to Informaton and enable logging.
D. Set the Web Server logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
E. From Visual Studio, confgure the site to enable Debugger Ataching and then publish the site.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION NO: 5
Which three distcp features can you utilize on a Hadoop cluster?
A. Use distcp to copy files only between two clusters or more. You cannot use distcp to copy data
between directories inside the same cluster.
B. Use distcp to copy HBase table files.
C. Use distcp to copy physical blocks from the source to the target destination in your cluster.
D. Use distcp to copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
E. Use distcp to run an internal MapReduce job to copy files.
70-534 pdf 
Answer: B,D,E
DistCp (distributed copy) is a tool used for large inter/intra-cluster copying. It uses
Map/Reduce to effect its distribution, error handling and recovery, and reporting. It expands a list
of files and directories into input to map tasks, each of which will copy a partition of the files
specified in the source list. Its Map/Reduce pedigree has endowed it with some quirks in both its
semantics and execution.

Reference: Hadoop DistCp Guide
QUESTION NO: 6
How does HDFS Federation help HDFS Scale horizontally?
A. HDFS Federation improves the resiliency of HDFS in the face of network issues by removing
the NameNode as a single-point-of-failure.
B. HDFS Federation allows the Standby NameNode to automatically resume the services of an
active NameNode.
C. HDFS Federation provides cross-data center (non-local) support for HDFS, allowing a cluster
administrator to split the Block Storage outside the local cluster.
D. HDFS Federation reduces the load on any single NameNode by using the multiple,
independent NameNode to manage individual pars of the filesystem namespace.
Answer: D
HDFS FederationIn order to scale the name service horizontally, federation uses
multiple independent Namenodes/Namespaces. The Namenodes are federated, that is, the
Namenodes are independent and don’t require 70-534 vce coordination with each other. The datanodes are
used as common storage for blocks by all the Namenodes. Each datanode registers with all the
Namenodes in the cluster. Datanodes send periodic heartbeats and block reports and handles
commands from the Namenodes.Reference: Apache Hadoop 2.0.2-alpha
QUESTION NO: 7
Choose which best describe a Hadoop cluster’s block size storage parameters once you set the
HDFS default block size to 64MB?
A. The block size of files in the cluster can be determined as the block is written.
B. The block size of files in the Cluster will all be multiples of 64MB.
C. The block size of files in the duster will all at least be 64MB.
D. The block size of files in the cluster will all be the exactly 64MB.
70-534 exam 
Answer: D
Note: What is HDFS Block size? How is it different from traditional file system block
size?In HDFS data is split into blocks and distributed across multiple nodes in the cluster. Each block is
typically 64Mb or 128Mb in size. Each block is replicated multiple times. Default is toreplicate each
block three times. Replicas are stored on different nodes. HDFS utilizes the local file system to
store each HDFS block as a separate file. HDFS Block size can not be compared with the
traditional file system block size.
QUESTION NO: 8
Which MapReduce daemon instantiates user code, and executes map and reduce tasks on a
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. NameNode
B. DataNode
C. JobTracker
D. TaskTracker
E. ResourceManager
F. ApplicationMaster
G. NodeManager
Answer: D
A TaskTracker is a slave node daemon in the cluster that accepts tasks (Map,
Reduce and Shuffle operations) from a JobTracker. There is only One Task Tracker process run
on any hadoop slave node. Task Tracker runs on its own JVM process. Every TaskTracker is
configured with a set ofslots, these indicate the number of tasks that it can accept. The
TaskTracker starts a separate JVM processes to do the actual work (called as Task Instance) this
is to ensure that process failure does not take down the task tracker. The TaskTracker monitors
these task instances, capturing the output and exit 70-534 dumps codes. When the Task instances finish,
successfully or not, the task tracker notifies the JobTracker. The TaskTrackers also send out
heartbeat messages to the JobTracker, usually every few minutes, to reassure the JobTracker
thatit is still alive. Thesemessage also inform the JobTracker of the number of available slots, so
the JobTracker can stay up to date with where in the cluster work can be delegated.
Note: How many Daemon processes run on a Hadoop system?
Hadoop is comprised of five separate daemons. Each of these daemon run in its own JVM.
Following 3 Daemons run on Masternodes NameNode – This daemon stores and maintains the
metadata for HDFS.
 Secondary NameNode – Performs housekeeping functions for the NameNode.
JobTracker – Manages MapReduce jobs, distributes individual tasks to machines running the Task
Tracker. Following 2 Daemons run on each Slave nodes DataNode – Stores actual HDFS data blocks.
TaskTracker – Responsible for instantiating and monitoring individual Map and Reduce tasks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, What is a
Task Tracker in Hadoop? How many instances of TaskTracker run on a Hadoop Cluster.

QUESTION NO: 9
What two processes must you do if you are running a Hadoop cluster with a single NameNode
and six DataNodes, and you want to change a configuration parameter so that it affects all six
DataNodes.
A. You must restart the NameNode daemon to apply the changes to the cluster
B. You must restart all six DataNode daemons to apply the changes to the cluster.
C. You don’t need to restart any daemon, as they will pick up changes automatically.
D. You must modify the configuration files on each of the six DataNode machines.
E. You must modify the configuration files on only one of the DataNode machine
F. You must modify the configuration files on the NameNode only. DataNodes read their
configuration from the master nodes.
70-534 pdf Answer: A,F
Note:Typically one machine in the cluster is designated as the NameNode and
another machine the as JobTracker, exclusively. These are the masters. The rest ofthe machines
in the cluster actas both DataNode and TaskTracker. These are the slaves.

Microsoft exams are updated on regular basis to ensure our members success in 70-534 dumps real exam, Pass4itsure members get access to download section where https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-534.html dumps certification test up-to-date document can be downloaded and viewed.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/_TWien5LmPc

[Free Microsoft Dumps&PDF] New Updated Microsoft Windows 70-398 Dumps Certification Questions Answers Microsoft Specialist Video Series with New Discount (From Google Drive)

Pass4itsure new updated Microsoft Windows 70-398 dumps certification questions answers Microsoft specialist video series with new discount, pass Planning for and Managing Devices in the Enterprise. It stands to reason that the importance of the first-hand experience is undeniable, so our company has pushed out the free demo version of Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-398.html dumps certification training in this website for all of the workers in the field to get the hands-on experience.

Exam Code: 70-398
Exam Name: Planning for and Managing Devices in the Enterprise
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
Q&As: 36

[Free Microsoft 70-398 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVTVaMEVIZlpiSDA

[Free Cisco 400-251 Dumps&PDF From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWN3NKQ2VvYmxCMDg

It can be understood that only through your own experience will you believe how effective and useful our Pass4itsure 70-398 dumps exam questions are.

70-398 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-398 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 1
The Preferences menu in the top frame of the system allows users to do all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Select workspaces for display
B. Update user profile information
C. Subscribe to email notifications
D. Update records within applications
70-398 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
What is the minimum operating system requirement for the RSA Archer Web Server?
A. Microsoft Windows 2000 Server
B. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 R2
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
How many databases are needed to support the RSA Archer Platform?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. One database is needed for every application created in the system.
70-398 dumps 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4

When a notification isn’t received as expected, it is likely something is configured incorrectly in:
A. The Notification Reports
B. The configuration database
C. The notification template itself
D. The application supporting the notification
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Administrators can access features on the Administration tab to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Create new records
B. Configure questionnaires
C. Add new fields to applications
D. Change the colors of the system
70-398 pdf 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
The Audit Management solution includes audit-related applications as well as a set of applications
related to what other area?
A. Risk Management
B. Vendor Management
C. Staffing Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
The Business Continuity Management solution also includes applications that address which two
of the following issues? (Choose two)
A. Crisis Events
B. Evidence Gathered
C. Disaster Recovery
D. Incident Management
E. Investigations In Progress
70-398 vce 
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
The Compliance Management solution readily interacts with all of the following RSA Archer
solutions EXCEPT:
A. Risk Management
B. Policy Management
C. Incident Management
D. Enterprise Management
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
The Enterprise Management solution is split into which two sub-solutions?
A. Asset Management and Company Hierarchy
B. Business Infrastructure and Enterprise Hierarchy
C. Organizational Structure and Asset Management
D. Business Hierarchy and Enterprise Infrastructure
70-398 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10

The Incident Management solution uses which application as its central starting point?
A. Contacts
B. Incidents
C. Investigations
D. Response Procedures
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
The Policy Management solution enables companies to implement a workflow process that will
ensure exceptions to policies are properly documented and reviewed. What is the name of the
application that includes this process?
A. Policies
B. Question Library
C. Control Procedures
D. Exception Requests
70-398 dumps 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
The Risk Management solution easily interacts with which other RSA Archer solutions, out of the
box?
A. Enterprise, Policy, Vendor
B. Audit, Compliance, Threat
C. Enterprise, Incident, Vendor
D. Compliance, Enterprise, Policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
The Threat Management solution is primarily used in conjunction with what other RSA Archer
administrative feature?
A. Data Feed Manager
B. Data Import Manager
C. Management Reporting
D. Business Processes Application
70-398 pdf 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
In the Vendor Management solution, how is the vendor tier determined?
A. The vendor relationship manager is able to manually type in the vendor tier.
B. The vendor tier is pulled from an external database maintained by a third party.
C. A representative from each vendor company can enter a tier through an external site.
D. The answers to business impact, financial viability, and privacy analyses are combined to
automatically calculate a vendor tier.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Within RSA Archer, data is stored in the following nested sequence of items:
A. Solution > Application > Record > Field
B. Workspace > Dashboard > iView > Report
C. Access role > Group > User Account > User
D. User Account > Workspace > Solution > Application
70-398 vce 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16

If an administrator wanted to edit a field in an application, which module should she access on the
Administration tab?
A. Integration
B. Access Control
C. Application Builder
D. Management Reporting
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
What is the name of the feature that allows administrators to merge application configuration
changes between instances?
A. Packaging
B. Integration
C. Data Import
D. Data Feed Manager
70-398 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Where would an administrator find licensing information for the RSA Archer system?
A. Preferences page
B. Manage Applications
C. Reports Master Listing
D. Management Reporting
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19

Which one of the following statements about key fields in RSA Archer is true?
A. Key fields must be unique.
B. Any field can be configured to be a key field.
C. Applications can have an unlimited number of key fields.
D. Key fields are displayed as a hyperlink to the record within search results.
70-398 dumps 
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
How does an administrator configure a field to appear on the layout of a form for end users?
A. He assigns the end user a role that grants Read rights to the field.
B. He ensures the field’s access is configured to be visible to specific end users.
C. He configures an Appearance Theme that includes the field to appear on the layout.
D. He drags the field onto the layout on the Layout page in Manage Applications.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Events can be used to trigger a number of different layout effects, based on a user’s interaction
with other fields in the application. Which of the following actions CANNOT be triggered by an
Event?
A. Delete a record
B. Generate an email notification
C. Make a field conditionally required
D. Populate a values list with a selected value
70-398 pdf 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22

When will a calculated field’s value be recalculated?
A. When a report is run
B. When a record is opened
C. When a record is saved, assuming fields affecting the calculation have been edited
D. When a user logs into the system, assuming the user has access to the application housing the
calculation
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
When a new questionnaire is created, the administrator can pull questions stored in which of the
following RSA Archer applications to be used in the questionnaire?
A. Findings
B. Question Library
C. Authoritative Sources
D. Manage Questionnaires
70-398 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
Users can be granted access to information at what three levels? (Choose three)
A. Form
B. Page
C. Field
D. Record
E. Application
F. Workspace
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:

You will find the key points as well as the latest question types of the exam are included in our Pass4itusre 70-398 dumps training materials. That is to say you will never leave out any important knowledge in the field as long as you practice all of the questions in our study materials, you might as well clearing up all of your linger doubts with the help of our https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-398.html dumps certification training.