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PL-300 Dumps Update | Please Take A Moment To Practice

Posted on March 15, 2023March 15, 2023 by admin

The first step in passing the Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst exam is to prepare the latest PL-300 dumps for exam preparation. But this step alone is not enough, please take a moment to practice the PL-300 exam questions!

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Get Microsoft Exam PL-300 Dumps Questions 2023 (Free)

Question 1:

HOTSPOT

You have a dataset named Pens that contains the following columns:

1. Unit Price

2. Quantity Ordered

You need to create a visualization that shows the relationship between Unit Price and Quantity Ordered. The solution must highlight orders that have a similar unit price and ordered quantity.

Which type of visualization and which feature should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: A scatter plot…

A scatter chart always has two value axes to show: one set of numerical data along a horizontal axis and another set of numerical values along a vertical axis. The chart displays points at the intersection of an x and y numerical value, combining these values into single data points.

Power BI may distribute these data points evenly or unevenly across the horizontal axis. It depends on the data the chart represents.

Box 2: Automatically find clusters

Scatter charts are a great choice to show patterns in large sets of data, for example by showing linear or non-linear trends, clusters, and outliers.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-scatter

Question 2:

You have an app workspace that contains a dashboard and four reports. All the reports are generated from a single dataset that contains sales data for your company. The reports display the data configured as shown in the following table.

You need to ensure that the users of the reports can locate the correct report by using natural language queries. What should you do?

A. From the properties of the dataset, create four Featured QandA Questions.

B. From the Format settings of the reports, modify the Page Information.

C. From the properties of the dataset, modify the QandA and Cortana settings.

D. From the properties of the workspace, modify the Language Settings.

Correct Answer: C

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-q-and-a-direct-query#limitations-during-public-preview

Question 3:

HOTSPOT

You have a column named UnitsInStock as shown in the following exhibit.

UnitsInStock has 75 non-null values, of which 51 are unique.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: 75

Box 2: reduce

They reduce from the number of values (75), to the number of unique values (51).

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/create-reports/desktop-show-items-no-data

Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You have two Azure SQL databases that contain the same tables and columns. For each database, you create a query that retrieves data from a table named Customer.

You need to determine the Customer tables into a single table. The solution must minimize the size of the data model and support scheduled refresh in powerbi.com. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Append Queries as New.

There are two primary ways of combining queries: merging and appending.

1. When you have one or more columns that you’d like to add to another query, you merge the queries.

2. When you have additional rows of data that you’d like to add to an existing query, you append the query.

Box 2: Disable loading the query to the data model

For every query that loads into the model memory will be consumed. and Memory is our asset in the Model, less memory consumption leads to better performance in most cases. The best approach is to disable loading.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-query/append-queries

Question 5:

HOTSPOT

You have two tables named Customers and Invoice in a Power BI model. The Customers table contains the following fields:

1. CustomerID

2. Customer City

3. Customer State

4. Customer Name

5. Customer Address 1

6. Customer Address 2

7. Customer Postal Code

The Invoice table contains the following fields:

1. Order ID

2. Invoice ID

3. Invoice Date

4. Customer ID

5. Total Amount

6. Total Item Count

The Customers table is related to the Invoice table through the Customer ID columns. A customer can have many invoices within one month.

The Power BI model must provide the following information:

The number of customers invoiced in each state last month

The average invoice amount per customer in each postal code

You need to define the relationship from the Customers table to the Invoice table. The solution must optimize query performance. What should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: One-to-many

A customer can have many invoices within one month.

Box 2: Single

For One-to-many relationships, the cross-filter direction is always from the “one” side, and optionally from the “many” side (bi-directional).

Single cross-filter direction means “single direction”, and Both means “both directions”. A relationship that filters in both directions is commonly described as bi-directional.

Question 6:

You have a QandA visual that displays information from a table named Carriers as shown in the following exhibit.

You need to ensure that users can ask questions by using the term airline or carrier. The solution must minimize changes to the data model. What should you do?

A. Add a duplicate query named Airline.

B. Add airline as a synonym of the carrier.

C. Rename the carrier column as an airline in the Carriers query.

D. Rename the query from Carriers to airlines.

Correct Answer: B

Add synonyms to tables and columns: This step applies specifically to QandA (and not to Power BI reports in general). Users often have a variety of terms they use to refer to the same thing, such as total sales, net sales, and total net sales. You can add these synonyms to tables and columns in the Power BI model.

This step can be important. Even with straightforward table and column names, users of QandA ask questions using the vocabulary that first comes to them. They\’re not choosing from a predefined list of columns. The more sensible synonyms you add, the better your users\’ experience is with your report.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/natural-language/q-and-a-best-practices

Question 7:

DRAG DROP

You build a report about warehouse inventory data. The dataset has more than 10 million product records from 200 warehouses worldwide.

You have a table named Products that contains the columns shown in the following table.

Warehouse managers report that it is difficult to use the report because the report uses only the product name in tables and visuals. The product name is contained within the ProductDescription column and is always the fourth value.

You need to modify the report to support the warehouse manager’s requirement to explore inventory levels at different levels of the product hierarchy. The solution must minimize the model size.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Power BI Desktop supports the use of inline hierarchy labels. With inline hierarchy labels, you can see hierarchy labels as you expand visuals using the Expand All feature.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/create-reports/desktop-inline-hierarchy-labels

Question 8:

You need to create a Power Bl theme that will be used in multiple reports. The theme will include corporate branding for font size, color, and bar chart formatting.

What should you do?

A. Create a theme as a PBIVIZ file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

B. Create a theme as a JSON file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

C. From Power Bl Desktop, use a built-in report theme.

D. From Power Bl Desktop, customize the current theme.

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

You have a data model that contains many complex DAX expressions. The expressions contain frequent references to the RELATED and RELATED TABLE functions.

You need to recommend a solution to minimize the use of the RELATED and RELATED TABLE functions.

What should you recommend?

A. Merge tables by using Power Query.

B. Hide unused columns in the model.

C. Split the model into multiple models.

D. Transpose.

Correct Answer: A

Combining data means connecting to two or more data sources, shaping them as needed, then consolidating them into a user query. When you have one or more columns that you\’d like to add to another query, you merge the queries.

Note: The RELATEDTABLE function is a shortcut for the CALCULATETABLE function with no logical expression. CALCULATETABLE evaluates a table expression in a modified filter context and returns A table of values.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/desktop-shape-and-combine-data

Question 10:

DRAG DROP

You have a Microsoft Excel workbook that contains two sheets named Sheet1 and Sheet2. Sheet 1 contains the following table named Table 1.

Sheet 2 contains the following table named Table 2.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Once the profit and loss dataset is created, which four actions should you perform in sequence to ensure that the business unit analysts see the appropriate profit and loss data? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Scenario: The analysts responsible for each business unit must see all the data the board sees, except the profit and loss data, which must be restricted to only their business unit\’s data. The analysts must be able to build new reports from

the dataset that contains the profit and loss data, but any reports that the analysts build must not be included in the quarterly reports for the board. The analysts must not be able to share the quarterly reports with anyone.

Define roles and rules in Power BI Desktop. You can define roles and rules within Power BI Desktop. When you publish to Power BI, it also publishes the role definitions.

To define security roles, follow these steps.

1. Import data into your Power BI Desktop report, or configure a DirectQuery connection. (step 1: From Power BI Desktop, publish the dataset to powerbi.com)

2. From the Modeling tab, select Manage Roles.

3. From the Manage roles window, select Create.

(Step 2: From Power BI Desktop, create four roles.)

4. Under Roles, provide a name for the role.

5. Under Tables, select the table to which you want to apply a DAX rule.

6. In the Table filter DAX expression box, enter the DAX expressions. This expression returns a value of true or false. For example: [Entity ID] = “Value”. (Step 3: From Power BI Desktop, add Table Filter DAX Expression to the roles.)

7. After you\’ve created the DAX expression, select the checkmark above the expression box to validate the expression.

8. Select Save.

Step 4: From powerbi.com, add role members to the roles.

You can’t assign users to a role within Power BI Desktop. You assign them to the Power BI service.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-admin-rls

Question 12:

HOTSPOT

You have a folder of monthly transaction extracts. You plan to create a report to analyze the transaction data.

You receive the following email message: “Hi, I’ve put 24 files of monthly transaction data onto the shared drive. File Transactions201801.csv through Transaction201812.csv have four columns while files Transactions201901.csv through

Transaction201912.csv have the same four columns plus an additional three columns. Each file contains 10 to 50 transactions.”

You get data from the folder and select Combine and Load. The Combine Files dialog box is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Yes

The four columns used in the 2018 transactions are already displayed.

Box 2: Yes

The columns used are based on the entire dataset. The additional columns in the 2019 files will be detected.

Box 3: Yes

Note: Under the hoods, Power BI will automatically detect which delimiter to use, and may even promote the first row as headers. You can manually change the delimiter, or define how Power BI should handle data types. You can set it to

automatically detect data types based on the first 200 rows or the entire dataset or you can even opt out of the detection of data types.

Question 13:

You use Power 81 Desktop to load data from a Microsoft SQL Server database. While waiting for the data to load, you receive the following error.

You need to resolve the error.

What are two ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Split long-running queries into subsets Of columns and use power Query to the queries

B. Disable query folding on long-running queries

C. Reduce the number of rows and columns returned by each query.

D. Use Power Query to combine long-running queries into one query.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 14:

Your company plans to completely separate development and production assets such as datasets, reports, and dashboards in Microsoft Power BI.

You need to recommend an application lifecycle strategy. The solution must minimize access to production assets and prevent end users from viewing the development assets.

What should you recommend?

A. Create production reports in a separate workspace that uses a shared dataset from the development workspace. Grant the end users access to the production workspace.

B. Create one workspace for development. From the new workspace, publish an app for production.

C. Create a workspace for development and a workspace for production. From the production workspace, publish an app.

D. In one workspace, create separate copies of the assets and append DEV to the names of the copied assets. Grant the end users access to the workspace.

Correct Answer: C

Use different work stages (Development, Test, and Production).

Deploy from the Development workspace.

Question 15:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answers choices, but the text of the scenario is the same in each question in this series.

You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that contains the following tables.

The following columns contain date information:

1. Date[Month] in the mmyyyy format

2. Date[Date_ID] in the ddmmyyyy format

3. Date[Date_name] in the mm/dd/yyyy format

4. Monthly_returns[Month_ID] in the mmyyyy format

The Order table contains more than one million rows.

The Store table has a relationship to the Monthly_returns table on the Store_ID column. This is the only relationship between the tables.

You plan to use Power BI Desktop to create an analytics solution for the data. You need to create a relationship between the Order table and the Store table on the Store_ID column. What should you do before you create the relationship?

A. In the Order table query, use the Table.TrasformRows function.

B. In the Store table query, use the Table.TrasformRows function.

C. In the Store table query, use the Table.TrasformColumnTypes function.

D. In the Order table query, use the Table.TrasformColumnTypes function.

Correct Answer: C

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Posted on December 5, 2022December 5, 2022 by admin

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Free CLF-C01 exam questions 1-13 (from latest CLF-C01 exam dumps ):

Latest questions 1

A company\\’s compliance officer wants to review the AWS Service Organization Control (SOC) reports. Which AWS service or feature should the compliance officer use to complete this task?

A. AWS Artifact
B. AWS Concierge Support
C. AWS Support
D. AWS Trusted Advisor

Correct Answer: A

Latest questions 2

Which of the following components of the AWS Global Infrastructure consists of one or more discrete data centers interconnected through low latency links?

A. Availability Zone
B. Edge location
C. Region
D. Private networking

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/whitepapers/latest/aws-overview/global-infrastructure.html

Latest questions 3

Which AWS services or features can a company use to connect the network of its on- premises data center to AWS? (Select Two.)

A. AWS VPN
B. AWS Directory Service
C. AWS Data Pipeline
D. AWS Direct Connect
E. AWS CloudHSM

Correct Answer: AE

Latest questions 4

Which of the following is the responsibility of AWS?

A. Setting up AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) users and groups
B. Physically destroying storage media at end of life
C. Patching guest operating systems
D. Configuring security settings on Amazon EC2 instances

Correct Answer: B

Media storage devices used to store customer data are classified by AWS as Critical and treated accordingly, as high impact, throughout their life-cycles. AWS has exacting standards on how to install, service, and eventually destroy the devices when they are no longer useful. When a storage device has reached the end of its useful life, AWS decommissions media using techniques detailed in NIST 800-88. Media that stored customer data is not removed from AWS control until it has been securely decommissioned.

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/compliance/data-center/controls/

Latest questions 5

A user is able to set up a master payer account to view consolidated billing reports through:

A. AWS Budgets.
B. Amazon Macie.
C. Amazon QuickSight.
D. AWS Organizations.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/awsaccountbilling/latest/aboutv2/consolidated-billing.html

Latest questions 6

A company wants to improve its security and audit posture by limiting Amazon EC2 inbound access.
What should the company use to access instances remotely instead of opening inbound SSH ports and managing SSH keys?

A. EC2 key pairs
B. AWS Systems Manager Session Manager
C. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
D. Network ACLs

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/systems-manager/latest/userguide/session-manager.html

Latest questions 7

Which of the following consists of one or more isolated data centers in the same regional area that are interconnected through low-latency networks?

A. Availability Zone
B. Edge location
C. AWS Region
D. Private networking

Correct Answer: A

Latest questions 8

Which AWS service offers persistent storage for a file system?

A. Amazon S3
B. Amazon EC2 instance store
C. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
D. Amazon ElastiCache

Correct Answer: C

Latest questions 9

A company is looking for a scalable data warehouse solution. Which of the following AWS solutions would meet the company\\’s needs?

A. Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)
B. Amazon DynamoDB
C. Amazon Kinesis
D. Amazon Redshift

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/redshift/

Latest questions 10

Which AWS services or features provide high availability and low latency by enabling failover across different AWS Regions? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon Route 53
B. Network Load Balancer
C. Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration
D. AWS Global Accelerator
E. Application Load Balancer

Correct Answer: AD

Latest questions 11

Which AWS service can be used to track unauthorized API calls?

A. AWS Config
B. AWS CloudTrail
C. AWS Trusted Advisor
D. Amazon Inspector

Correct Answer: B

Latest questions 12

A developer has a stateful web server on-premises that is being migrated to AWS. The developer must have greater elasticity in the new design. How should the developer re-factor the application to make it more elastic? (Select TWO.)

A. Use pessimistic concurrency on Amazon DynamoDB
B. Use Amazon CloudFront with an Auto Scaling group.
C. Use Amazon CloudFront with an AWS Web Application Firewall
D. Store session state data m an Amazon DynamoDB table.
E. Use an ELB with an Auto Scaling group

Correct Answer: DE

Latest questions 13

A company is running a web application that is using Amazon Cognito for authentication The company does not want to use multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all the visitors every time, but the company\\’s security team has concerns about compromised credentials The development team needs to configure mandatory MFA only when suspicious sign in attempts are detected.

Which Amazon Cognito feature will meet these requirements?

A. Short message service (SMS) text message MFA
B. Advanced security metrics
C. Time-based one-time password (TOTP) software token MFA
D. Adaptive authentication
Correct Answer: D

In a word:

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HPE6-A78 Exam Dumps [New Version] Valid HPE6-A78 Study Resources

Posted on September 15, 2022September 15, 2022 by admin

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Latest HPE6-A78 Exam Questions 2022 [Free]

1. A company has Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Aruba Campus APs. and ArubaOS-CX switches. The company plans to use ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to classify endpoints by type The ClearPass admins tell you that they want to run Network scans as part of the solution. What should you do to configure the infrastructure to support the scans?

A. Create a TA profile on the ArubaOS-Switches with the root CA certificate for ClearPass\\’s HTTPS certificate
B. Create device fingerprinting profiles on the ArubaOS-Switches that include SNMP. and apply the profiles to edge ports
C. Create remote mirrors on the ArubaOS-Switches that collect traffic on edge ports, and mirror it to CPPM\\’s IP address.
D. Create SNMPv3 users on ArubaOS-CX switches, and make sure that the credentials match those configured on CPPM

Correct Answer: B

2. What is one way that WPA3-PerSonal enhances security when compared to WPA2- Personal?

A. WPA3-Perscn3i is more secure against password leaking Because all users have their own username and password
B. WPA3-Personal prevents eavesdropping on other users\\’ wireless traffic by a user who knows the passphrase for the WLAN.
C. WPA3-Personal is more resistant to passphrase cracking Because it requires passphrases to be at least 12 characters
D. WPA3-Personal is more complicated to deploy because it requires a backend authentication server

Correct Answer: A

3. What is the benefit of using network aliases in ArubaOS firewall policies?

A. You can associate a reputation score with the network alias to create rules that filler traffic based on reputation rather than IP.
B. You can use the aliases to translate client IP addresses to other IP addresses on the other side of the firewall
C. You can adjust the IP addresses in the aliases, and the rules using those aliases automatically update
D. You can use the aliases to conceal the true IP addresses of servers from potentially untrusted clients.

Correct Answer: A

4. An ArubaOS-CX switch enforces 802.1X on a port. No fan-through options or port-access roles are configured on the port The 802 1X supplicant on a connected client has not yet completed authentication. Which type of traffic does the authenticator accept from the client?

A. EAP only
B. DHCP, DNS, and RADIUS only
C. RADIUS only
D. DHCP, DNS, and EAP only

Correct Answer: A

5. What is the reason to set up a packet capture on an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC)?

A. The company wants to use ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to profile devices and needs to receive HTTP UserAgent strings from the MC.
B. The security team believes that a wireless endpoint connected to the MC is launching an attack and wants to examine the traffic more closely.
C. You want the MC to analyze wireless clients\\’ traffic at a lower level so that the ArubaOS firewall can control the traffic I based on the application.
D. You want the MC to analyze wireless clients\\’ traffic at a lower level so that the ArubaOS firewall can control Web traffic based on the destination URL.

Correct Answer: C

6. What correctly describes the Pairwise Master Key (PMK) in the specified wireless security protocol?

A. In WPA3-Enterprise, the PMK is unique per session and derived using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals.
B. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is unique per session and derived using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals.
C. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is derived directly from the passphrase and is the same for every session.
D. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is the same for each session and is communicated to clients that authenticate

Correct Answer: A

7. What is a guideline for managing local certificates on an ArubaOS-Switch?

A. Before installing the local certificate, create a trust anchor (TA) profile with the root CA certificate for the certificate that you will install
B. Install an Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) certificate to simplify the process of enrolling and re-enrolling for a certificate
C. Generate the certificate signing request (CSR) with a program offline, then, install both the certificate and the private key on the switch in a single file.
D. Create a self-signed certificate online on the switch because ArubaOS-Switches do not support CA-signed certificates.

Correct Answer: C

8. What is the difference between radius and TACACS+?

A. RADIUS combines the authentication and authorization process while TACACS+ separates them.
B. RADIUS uses TCP for Its connection protocol, while TACACS+ uses UDP for its connection protocol.
C. RADIUS encrypts the complete packet, white TACACS+ only offers partial encryption.
D. RADIUS uses Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) in its messages, while TACACS+ does not use them.

Correct Answer: A

9. What is symmetric encryption?

A. It simultaneously creates ciphertext and a same-size MAC.
B. any form of encryption mat ensures that the ciphertext Is the same length as the plaintext.
C. It uses the same key to encrypt plaintext as to decrypt the ciphertext.
D. It uses a Key that is double the size of the message that it encrypts.

Correct Answer: C

10. What is an example of phishing?

A. An attacker sends TCP messages to many different ports to discover which ports are open.
B. An attacker checks a user\’s password by using trying millions of potential passwords.
C. An attacker lures clients to connect to a software-based AP that is using a legitimate SSID.
D. An attacker sends emails posing as a service team member to get users to disclose their passwords.

Correct Answer: D

11. You have an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC). for which you are already using Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to authenticate access to the Web Ul with usernames and passwords You now want to enable managers to use certificates to log in to the Web Ul CPPM will continue to act as the external server to check the names in managers\\’ certificates and tell the MC the managers\\’ correct rote in addition to enabling certificate authentication. What is a step that you should complete on the MC?

A. Verify that the MC has the correct certificates, and add RadSec to the RADIUS server configuration for CPPM
B. install all of the managers\\’ certificates on the MC as OCSP Responder certificates
C. Verify that the MC trusts CPPM\\’s HTTPS certificate by uploading a trusted CA certificate Also, configure a CPPM username and password on the MC
D. Create a local admin account mat uses certificates in the account, specify the correct trusted CA certificate and external authentication

Correct Answer: A

12. You have been instructed to look in the ArubaOS Security Dashboard\\’s client list Your goal is to find clients mat belong to the company and have connected to devices that might belong to hackers. Which client fits this description?

A. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6d;a4; Client Classification Authorized; AP Classification, interfering
B. MAC address d8:50:e6 f3;6e;c5; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Neighbor
C. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6e;60; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Interfering
D. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;TO;ab; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Rogue

Correct Answer: C

13. Refer to the exhibit.

This company has ArubaOS-Switches. The exhibit shows one access layer switch, Swllcn-2. as an example, but the campus actually has more switches. The company wants to stop any internal users from exploiting ARP. What Is the proper way to configure the switches to meet these requirements?

A. On Switch-1, enable ARP protection globally and enable ARP protection on all VLANs.
B. On Switch-2, make ports connected to employee devices trusted ports for ARP protection
C. On Switch-2, enable DHCP snooping globally and on VLAN 201 before enabling ARP protection
D. On Switch-2, configure static PP-to-MAC bindings for all end-user devices on the network

Correct Answer: D

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Posted on July 22, 2022July 22, 2022 by admin

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What is the relationship between the NSE 5 Network Security Analyst and the Fortinet NSE 5—FortiAnalyzer 6.4 exam?

NSE 5 Network Security Analyst –

The Cybersecurity Analyst designation recognizes your ability to implement cybersecurity management and analysis using Fortinet security appliances.

Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiAnalyzer 6.4 –

The Fortinet NSE 5-FortiAnalyzer 6.4 exam is part of the NSE 5 Cybersecurity Analyst Program and recognizes successful candidates’ knowledge and expertise in FortiAnalyzer.

Successfully passing the NSE5_FAZ-6.4 exam earns NSE 5 Network Security Analyst certification.

You can go through the following to learn more details about Fortinet NSE 5 – FortiAnalyzer 6.4:

Exam Name: Fortinet NSE 5—FortiAnalyzer 6.4
Exam series: NSE5_FAZ-6.4
Time allowed: 60 minutes
Exam questions: 30 multiple-choice questions
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiOS 6.4.1
FortiAnalyzer 6.4.1

How can I get NSE 5 certification?

You must successfully pass at least two Fortinet NSE 5 certification exams. Successfully passing each product-specific exam earns the appropriate Expert designation. Today we are mainly talking about the NSE5_FAZ-6.4 exam, so you must successfully pass the NSE5_FAZ-6.4 exam.

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QUESTION 1

You are using RAID with a FortiAnalyzer that supports software RAID, and one of the hard disks on FortiAnalyzer has failed. What is the recommended method to replace the disk?

A. Shut down FortiAnalyzer and then replace the disk
B. Downgrade your RAID level, replace the disk, and then upgrade your RAID level
C. Clear all RAID alarms and replace the disk while FortiAnalyzer is still running
D. Perform a hot swap

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which statements are true of Administrative Domains (ADOMs) in FortiAnalyzer? (Choose two.)

A. ADOMs are enabled by default.
B. ADOMs constrain other administrator\’s access privileges to a subset of devices in the device list.
C. Once enabled, the Device Manager, FortiView, Event Management, and Reports tab display per ADOM.
D. All administrators can create ADOMs–not just the admin administrator.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3

Which two statements are true regarding FortiAnalyzer log forwarding? (Choose two.)

A. In aggregation mode, you can forward logs to syslog and CEF servers as well.
B. Forwarding mode forwards logs in real time only to other FortiAnalyzer devices.
C. Aggregation mode stores logs and content files and uploads them to another FortiAnalyzer device at a scheduled time.
D. Both modes, forwarding and aggregation, support encryption of logs between devices.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.0/cookbook/63238/what-is-the-differencebetween-logforward-and-log-aggregation-modes

QUESTION 4

View the exhibit.

Why is the total quota less than the total system storage?

A. 3.6% of the system storage is already being used.
B. Some space is reserved for system use, such as storage of compression files, upload files, and temporary report files
C. The oftpd process has not archived the logs yet
D. The logfiled process is just estimating the total quota

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.5/administration-guide/368682/disk-space-allocation

QUESTION 5

What statements are true regarding FortiAnalyzer \’s treatment of high availability (HA) dusters? (Choose two)

A. FortiAnalyzer distinguishes different devices by their serial number.
B. FortiAnalyzer receives logs from d devices in a duster.
C. FortiAnalyzer receives bgs only from the primary device in the cluster.
D. FortiAnalyzer only needs to know (he serial number of the primary device in the cluster-it automaticaly discovers the other devices.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6

Which two statements are true regarding log fetching on FortiAnalyzer? (Choose two.)

A. A FortiAnalyzer device can perform either the fetch server or client role, and it can perform two roles at the same time with the same FortiAnalyzer devices at the other end.
B. Log fetching can be done only on two FortiAnalyzer devices that are running the same firmware version.
C. Log fetching allows the administrator to fetch analytics logs from another FortiAnalyzer for redundancy.
D. Log fetching allows the administrator to run queries and reports against historical data by retrieving archived logs from one FortiAnalyzer device and sending them to another FortiAnalyzer device.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/7.0.1/administration-guide/651442/fetchermanagement

QUESTION 7

Which two statements are true regarding FortiAnalyzer operating modes? (Choose two.)

A. When in collector mode, FortiAnalyzer collects logs from multiple devices and forwards these logs in the original binary format.
B. Collector mode is the default operating mode.
C. When in collector mode. FortiAnalyzer supports event management and reporting features.
D. By deploying different FortiAnalyzer devices with collector and analyzer mode in a network, you can improve the overall performance of log receiving, analysis, and reporting

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/7.0.0/administration-guide/227478/collectormode
https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/7.0.0/administration-guide/312644/analyzer-collectorcollaboration

QUESTION 8

For which two SAML roles can the FortiAnalyzer be configured? (Choose two.)

A. Principal
B. Service provider
C. Identity collector
D. Identity provider

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.0/new-features/957811/samladminauthentication#:~:text
=for%20the%20administrator.-,FortiAnalyzer%20can%20play%20the%20role
%20of%20the%20identity%20provider%20(IdP,external%20identity%20provider%20is%20available
https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.0/administration-guide/981386/saml-adminauthentication

QUESTION 9

In FortiAnalyzer\’s FormView, source and destination IP addresses from FortiGate devices are not resolving to a hostname. How can you resolve the source and destination IPs, without introducing any additional performance impact to FortiAnalyzer?

A. Configure local DNS servers on FortiAnalyzer
B. Resolve IPs on FortiGate
C. Configure # set resolve-ip enable in the system FortiView settings
D. Resolve IPs on a per-ADOM basis to reduce delay on FortiView while IPs resolve

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

What are offline logs on FortiAnalyzer?

A. Compressed logs, which are also known as archive logs, are considered to be offline logs.
B. When you restart FortiAnalyzer. all stored logs are considered to be offline logs.
C. Logs that are indexed and stored in the SQL database.
D. Logs that are collected from offline devices after they boot up.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://help.fortinet.com/fa/faz50hlp/56/5-6-6/Content/
FortiAnalyzer_Admin_Guide/0300_Key_concepts/0600_Log_Storage/0400_Arch ive_analytics_logs.htm

QUESTION 11

What is the recommended method of expanding disk space on a FortiAnalyzer VM?

A. From the VM host manager, add an additional virtual disk and use the #execute lvm extend command to expand the storage
B. From the VM host manager, expand the size of the existing virtual disk
C. From the VM host manager, expand the size of the existing virtual disk and use the # execute format disk command to reformat the disk
D. From the VM host manager, add an additional virtual disk and rebuild your RAID array

Correct Answer: A

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD40848

QUESTION 12

View the exhibit.

What does the data point at 14:35 tell you?

A. FortiAnalyzer is dropping logs.
B. FortiAnalyzer is indexing logs faster than logs are being received.
C. FortiAnalyzer has temporarily stopped receiving logs so older logs\’ can be indexed.
D. The sqlplugind daemon is ahead in indexing by one log.

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.5/administration-guide/47690/insert-rate-vs-receiverate-widget

QUESTION 13

After you have moved a registered logging device out of one ADOM and into a new ADOM, what is the purpose of running the following CLI command?

A. To reset the disk quota enforcement to default
B. To remove the analytics logs of the device from the old database
C. To migrate the archive logs to the new ADOM
D. To populate the new ADOM with analytical logs for the moved device, so you can run reports

Correct Answer: D

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Answers are posted at the end of the question.

500-285 ^Q&As

QUESTION 1

Host criticality is an example of which option?

A. a default whitelist
B. a default traffic profile
C. a host attribute
D. a correlation policy

QUESTION 2

Which statement is true concerning static NAT?

A. Static NAT supports only TCP traffic.
B. Static NAT is normally deployed for outbound traffic only.
C. Static NAT provides a one-to-one mapping between IP addresses.
D. Static NAT provides a many-to-one mapping between IP addresses.

QUESTION 3

Which statement is true in regard to the Sourcefire Security Intelligence lists?

A. The global blacklist universally allows all traffic through the managed device.
B. The global whitelist cannot be edited.
C. IP addresses can be added to the global blacklist by clicking on interactive graphs in Context Explorer.
D. The Security Intelligence lists cannot be updated.

QUESTION 4

Which option is used to implement suppression in the Rule Management user interface?

A. Rule Category
B. Global
C. Source
D. Protocol

QUESTION 5

Access control policy rules can be configured to block based on the conditions that you specify in each rule. Which behavior block response do you use if you want to deny and reset the connection of HTTP traffic that meets the conditions of the access control rule?

A. interactive block with reset
B. interactive block
C. block
D. block with reset

QUESTION 6

The IP address::/0 is equivalent to which IPv4 address and netmask?

A. 0.0.0.0
B. 0.0.0.0/0
C. 0.0.0.0/24
D. The IP address::/0 is not valid IPv6 syntax.

QUESTION 7

Other than navigating to the Network File Trajectory page for a file, which option is an alternative way of accessing the network trajectory of a file?

A. from Context Explorer
B. from the Analysis menu
C. from the cloud
D. from the Defense Center

QUESTION 8

Which policy controls malware blocking configuration?

A. file policy
B. malware policy
C. access control policy
D. IPS policy

QUESTION 9

Which option is true when configuring an access control rule?

A. You can use geolocation criteria to specify source IP addresses by country and continent, as well as destination IP addresses by country and continent.
B. You can use geolocation criteria to specify destination IP addresses by country but not source IP addresses.
C. You can use geolocation criteria to specify source and destination IP addresses by country but not by continent.
D. You can use geolocation criteria to specify source and destination IP addresses by continent but not by country.

QUESTION 10

Stacking allows a primary device to utilize which resources of secondary devices?

A. interfaces, CPUs, and memory
B. CPUs and memory
C. interfaces, CPUs, memory, and storage
D. interfaces and storage

QUESTION 11

Where do you configure widget properties?

A. dashboard properties
B. the Widget Properties button in the title bar of each widget
C. the Local Configuration page
D. Context Explorer

QUESTION 12

When configuring an LDAP authentication object, which server type is available?

A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. Yahoo
C. Oracle
D. SMTP

QUESTION 13

Alert priority is established in which way?
A. event classification
B. priority.conf file
C. host criticality selection
D. through Context Explorer

QUESTION 14

Context Explorer can be accessed by a subset of user roles. Which predefined user role is not valid for FireSIGHT event access?

A. Administrator
B. Intrusion Administrator
C. Security Analyst
D. Security Analyst (Read-Only)

QUESTION 15

Which event source can have a default workflow configured?

A. user events
B. discovery events
C. server events
D. connection events

Correct answer:

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12	13	14	15
C	C	C	C	D	B	A	A	A	B	B	A	A	B	B

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Citrix 1Y0-440 exam practice test questions 1-13 share online

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has set up NetScaler MPX devices in high availability mode with version 12.0.53.13 nc.
These are placed behind a Cisco ASA 5505 Firewall. The Cisco ASA Firewall is configured to block traffic using access
control lists. The network address translation (NAT) is also performed on the firewall.
The following requirements were captured by the architect during the discussion held as part of the NetScaler security
implementation project with the customer\\’s security team:
The NetScaler MPX device:
1.
should monitor the rate of traffic either on a specific virtual entity or on the device. It should be able to mitigate the
attacks from a hostile client sending a flood of requests. The NetScaler device should be able to stop the HTTP, TCP,
and DNS based requests.
2.
needs to protect backend servers from overloading.
3.
needs to queue all the incoming requests on the virtual server level instead of the service level.
4.
should provide protection against well-known Windows exploits, virus-infected personal computers, centrally managed
automated botnets, compromised webservers, known spammers/hackers, and phishing proxies.
5.
should provide flexibility to enforce the decided level of security check inspections for the requests originating from a
specific geolocation database.
6.
should block the traffic based on a pre-determined header length, URL length, and cookie length. The device should
ensure that characters such as a single straight quote (“); backslash (\); and semicolon (;) are either blocked,
transformed, or dropped while being sent to the backend server.
Which security feature should the architect configure to meet these requirements?
A. Global Server Load balancing with Dynamic RTT
B. Global Server Load Balancing with DNS views
C. Geolocation-based blocking using Application Firewall
D. geolocation-based blocking using Responder policies
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has met with a team of Workspacelab members for a design discussion. They have captured
the following requirements for NetScaler design project:
1.
The authentication must be deployed for the users from the workspacelab.com and vendorlab.com domains.
2.
The workspacelab users connecting from the internal (workspacelab) network should be authenticated using LDAP.
3.
The workspacelab users connecting from the external network should be authenticated using LDAP and RADIUS.
4.
The vendorlab users should be authenticated using Active Directory Federation Service.
5.
The user credentials must NOT be shared between workspacelab and vendorlab.
6.
Single Sign-on must be performed between StoreFront and NetScaler Gateway.
7.
A domain drop down list must be provided if the used connects to the NetScaler gateway virtual server externally.
Which method must the architect utilize for user management between the two domains?
A. Create shadow accounts for the users of the Workspacelab domain in the Vendorlab domain.
B. Create a global catalog containing the objects of Vendorlab and Workspacelab domains.
C. Create shadow accounts for the Vendorlab domain in the Workspacelab domain.
D. Create a two-way trust between the Vendorlab and Workspacelab domains.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has implemented two high availability pairs of MPX 5500 and MPX 11500 devices
respectively with 12.0.53.13 nc version. The NetScaler devices are set up to handle NetScaler Gateway, Load
Balancing, Application Firewall, and Content Switching. The Workspacelab infrastructure is set up to be monitored with
NMAS version 12.0.53.13 nc by the Workspacelab administrators. The Workspacelab team wants to implement one
more pair of NetScaler MPX 7500 devices with version 12.0.53.13 nc.
The Citrix consulting team has assigned the task to implement these NetScaler devices in the infrastructure and set
them up to be monitored and managed by NMAS.
The following are the requirements that were discussed during the project initiation call:
1.
NMAS should be configured to get the infrastructure information under sections such as HDX Insight, WEB Insight, and
Security Insight.
2.
Configuration on the new MPX devices should be identical to MPX 11500 devices.
3.
Configuration changes after the deployment and initial setup should be optimized using NMAS.
4.
NMAS should be utilized to configure templates that can be utilized by the Workspacelab team in future deployment.
5.
As per the requirement from the Workspacelab team, NMAS should be store the audited data for only 15 days.
Which process should the architect utilize to ensure that the deployment of MPX 11500 devices are optimized and that it
is correct, before deploying the devices in production?
A. Under Stylebooks; Inbuilt and composite stylebook templates should be utilized prior to deployment.
B. Under Stylebooks; Public and composite stylebook templates should be utilized prior to deployment.
C. Under Configuration Management; Configuration Audit and Advice should be used prior to deployment.
D. Under Configuration jobs; Configuration Audit and Advice should be used prior to deployment.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess an existing NetScaler multi-site deployment. The deployment is using
Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) configured in a parent-child configuration.
Click the Exhibit button to view the diagram of the current GSLB configuration and parent-child relationships, as well as
the status of the sites and the connectivity between them.

1Y0-440 exam questions-q4

Based on the displayed configuration and status, Chil_site1_______ a connection from _______. (Choose the correct
option to complete the sentence.)
A. rejects; SiteP2 and SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1
B. rejects; SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1
C. accepts; SiteP3; becomes its child site
D. accepts; SiteP2; becomes its child site
E. does NOT receive; SiteP2 and SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1
F. rejects; SiteP2; remains a child site of SiteP1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess an existing NetScaler configuration. The customer recently found that
certain user groups were receiving access to an internal web server with an authorization configuration that does NOT
align with the designed security requirements.
Click the Exhibit button view the configured authorization settings for the web server.

1Y0-440 exam questions-q5

Which item should the architect change or remove to align the authorization configuration with the security requirements
of the organization?
A. Item 1
B. Item 3
C. Item 4
D. Item 5
E. Item 2
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has deployed two MPX devices, 12.0.53.13 nc and MPX 11500 models, in high availability
(HA) pair for the Workspace labs team. The deployment method is two-arm and the devices are installed behind a
CISCO ASA 5585 Firewall. The architect enabled the following features on the NetScaler devices. Content Switching,
SSL Offloading, Load Balancing, NetScaler Gateway, Application Firewall in hybrid security and Appflow. All are
enabled to send monitoring information to NMAS 12.0.53.13 nc build. The architect is preparing to configure load
balancing for Microsoft Exchange 2016 server.
The following requirements were discussed during the implementation:
1.
All traffic needs to be segregated based on applications, and the fewest number of IP addresses should be utilized
during the configuration
2.
All traffic should be secured and any traffic coming into HTTP should be redirected to HTTPS.
3.
Single Sign-on should be created for Microsoft Outlook web access (OWA).
4.
NetScaler should recognize Uniform Resource Identifier (URl) and close the session to NetScaler when users hit the
Logoff button in Microsoft Outlook web access.
5.
Users should be able to authenticate using either user principal name (UPN) or sAMAccountName.
6.
The Layer 7 monitor should be configured to monitor the Microsoft Outlook web access servers and the monitor probes
must be sent on SSL
Which monitor will meet these requirements?
A. add lb monitor mon_rpc HTTP-ECV -send “GET /rpc/healthcheck.htm” recv 200 -LRTM DISABLED
B. add lb monitor mon_rpc HTTP-ECV -send “GET /rpc/healthcheck.htm” recv 200 -LRTM ENABLED
C. add lb monitor mon_rpc HTTP -send “GET /rpc/healthcheck.htm” recv 200 -LRTM DISABLED -secure YES
D. add lb monitor mon_rpc HTTP-ECV -send “GET/rpc/healthcheck.htm” recv 200 -LRTM DISABLED -secure YES
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess an existing on-premises NetScaler deployment which includes Advanced
Endpoint Analysis scans. During a previous security audit, the team discovered that certain endpoint devices were able
to perform unauthorized actions despite NOT meeting pre-established criteria.
The issue was isolated to several endpoint analysis (EPA) scan settings.
Click the Exhibit button to view the endpoint security requirements and configured EPA policy settings.

1Y0-440 exam questions-q7

Which setting is preventing the security requirements of the organization from being met?
A. Item 6
B. Item 7
C. Item 1
D. Item 3
E. Item 5
F. Item 2
G. Item 4
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a hybrid XenApp and XenDesktop environment which will include as well as
resource locations in an on-premises datacenter and Microsoft Azure.
Organizational details and requirements are as follows:
1.
Active XenApp and XenDesktop Service subscription
2.
No existing NetScaler deployment
3.
Minimization of additional costs
4.
All users should correct directly to the resource locations containing the servers which will host HDX sessions
Click the Exhibit button to view the conceptual environment architecture.

1Y0-440 exam questions-q8

The architect should use___________ in Location A, and should use _______________ in Location B. (Choose the
correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. No NetScaler products; NetScaler ICA Proxy (cloud-licensed)
B. NetScaler Gateway as a Service; NetScaler ICA Proxy (cloud-licensed)
C. NetScaler Gateway as a Service; no NetScaler products
D. No NetScaler products; NetScaler Gateway appliance
E. NetScaler gateway as a Service; NetScaler ADC (BYO)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Architect and a team of Workspacelab members have met for a design discussion about the
NetScaler Design Project. They captured the following requirements:
1.
Two pairs of NetScaler MPX appliances will be deployed in the DMZ network and the internal network.
2.
High availability will be accessible between the pair of NetScaler MPX appliances in the DMZ network.
3.
Multi-factor authentication must be configured for the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
4.
The NetScaler Gateway virtual server is integrated with XenApp/XenDesktop environment.
5.
Load balancing must be deployed for the users from the workspacelab.com and vendorlab.com domains.
6.
The logon page must show the workspacelab logo.
7.
Certificate verification must be performed to identify and extract the username.
8.
The client certificate must have UserPrincipalName as a subject.
9.
All the managed workstations for the workspace users must have a client identifications certificate installed on it.
10.The workspacelab users connecting from a managed workstation with a client certificate on it should be
authenticated using LDAP. 11.The workspacelab users connecting from a workstation without a client certificate should
be
authenticated using LDAP and RADIUS.
12.The vendorlab users should be authenticated using Active Directory Federation Service.
13.The user credentials must NOT be shared between workspacelab and vendorlab.
14.Single Sign-on must be performed between StoreFront and NetScaler Gateway.
15.A domain drop down list must be provided if the user connects to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server externally.
16.The domain of the user connecting externally must be identified using the domain selected from the domain drop
down list.
On performing the deployment, the architect observes that users are always prompted with two-factor authentication
when trying to assess externally from an unmanaged workstation.
Click the exhibit button to view the configuration.

1Y0-440 exam questions-q9

What should the architect do to correct this configuration?
A. Unbind LoginSchema Policy LDAP_RADIUS from the virtual server.
B. Bind the Portal theme as Domaindropdown.
C. Bind the LoginSchema Policy Domaindropdown to priority 90.
D. Bind the Default LoginSchema Policy as Domaindropdown.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
For which three reasons should a Citrix Architect perform a capabilities assessment when designing and deploying a
new NetScaler in an existing environment? (Choose three.)
A. Understand the skill set of the company.
B. Assess and identify potential risks for the design and build phase.
C. Establish and prioritize the key drivers behind a project.
D. Determine operating systems and application usage.
E. Identify other planned projects and initiatives that must be integrated with the design and build phase.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 11
A Citrix Architect has deployed NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) to monitor a high availability pair
of NetScaler VPX devices.
The architect needs to deploy automated configuration backup to meet the following requirements:
1.
The configuration backup file must be protected using a password.
2.
The configuration backup must be performed each day at 8:00 AM GMT.
3.
The configuration backup must also be performed if any changes are made in the ns.conf file.
4.
Once the transfer is successful, auto-delete the configuration file from the NMAS.
Which SNMP trap will trigger the configuration file backup?
A. netScalerConfigSave
B. sysTotSaveConfigs
C. netScalerConfigChange
D. sysconfigSave
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler-mas/12/instance-management/how-to-backup-and-restore-usingmas.html#configuring-instance-backup-settings

QUESTION 12
Scenario: Based on a discussion between a Citrix Architect and a team of Workspacelab members, the MPX Logical
layout for Workspacelab has been created across three (3) sites.
They captured the following requirements during the design discussion held for a NetScaler design project:
1.
All three (3) Workspacelab sites (DC, NDR, and DR) will have similar NetScaler configurations and design.
2.
Both external and internal NetScaler MPX appliances will have Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) configured and
deployed in Active/Passive mode.
3.
GSLB should resolve both A and AAA DNS queries.
4.
In the GSLB deployment, the NDR site will act as backup for the DC site, whereas the DR site will act as backup for the
NDR site.
5.
When the external NetScaler replies to DNS traffic coming in through Cisco Firepower IPS, the replies should be sent
back through the same path.
6.
On the internal NetScaler, both the front-end VIP and backend SNIP will be part of the same subnet.
7.
The external NetScaler will act as default gateway for the backend servers.
8.
All three (3) sites, DC, NDR, and DR, will have two (2) links to the Internet from different service providers configured in
Active/Standby mode.
Which design decision must the architect make the design requirements above?
A. MAC-based Forwarding must be enabled on the External NetScaler Pair.
B. NSIP of the External NetScaler must be configured as the default gateway on the backend servers.
C. The Internal NetScaler must be deployed in Transparent mode.
D. The ADNS service must be configured with an IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to configure a full VPN session profile to meet the following requirements:
1.
Users should be able to send the traffic only for the allowed networks through the VPN tunnel.
2.
Only the DNS requests ending with the configured DNS suffix workspacelab.com must be sent to NetScaler Gateway.
3.
If the DNS query does NOT contain a domain name, then DNS requests must be sent to NetScaler gateway. Which
settings will meet these requirements?
A. Split Tunnel to OFF, Split DNS Both
B. Split Tunnel to ON, Split DNS Local
C. Split Tunnel to OFF, Split DNS Remote
D. Split Tunnel to ON, Split DNS Remote
Correct Answer: B

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