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Latest HPE6-A78 Exam Questions 2022 [Free]
1. A company has Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Aruba Campus APs. and ArubaOS-CX switches. The company plans to use ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to classify endpoints by type The ClearPass admins tell you that they want to run Network scans as part of the solution. What should you do to configure the infrastructure to support the scans?
A. Create a TA profile on the ArubaOS-Switches with the root CA certificate for ClearPass\\’s HTTPS certificate B. Create device fingerprinting profiles on the ArubaOS-Switches that include SNMP. and apply the profiles to edge ports C. Create remote mirrors on the ArubaOS-Switches that collect traffic on edge ports, and mirror it to CPPM\\’s IP address. D. Create SNMPv3 users on ArubaOS-CX switches, and make sure that the credentials match those configured on CPPM
Correct Answer: B
2. What is one way that WPA3-PerSonal enhances security when compared to WPA2- Personal?
A. WPA3-Perscn3i is more secure against password leaking Because all users have their own username and password B. WPA3-Personal prevents eavesdropping on other users\\’ wireless traffic by a user who knows the passphrase for the WLAN. C. WPA3-Personal is more resistant to passphrase cracking Because it requires passphrases to be at least 12 characters D. WPA3-Personal is more complicated to deploy because it requires a backend authentication server
Correct Answer: A
3. What is the benefit of using network aliases in ArubaOS firewall policies?
A. You can associate a reputation score with the network alias to create rules that filler traffic based on reputation rather than IP. B. You can use the aliases to translate client IP addresses to other IP addresses on the other side of the firewall C. You can adjust the IP addresses in the aliases, and the rules using those aliases automatically update D. You can use the aliases to conceal the true IP addresses of servers from potentially untrusted clients.
Correct Answer: A
4. An ArubaOS-CX switch enforces 802.1X on a port. No fan-through options or port-access roles are configured on the port The 802 1X supplicant on a connected client has not yet completed authentication. Which type of traffic does the authenticator accept from the client?
A. EAP only B. DHCP, DNS, and RADIUS only C. RADIUS only D. DHCP, DNS, and EAP only
Correct Answer: A
5. What is the reason to set up a packet capture on an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC)?
A. The company wants to use ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to profile devices and needs to receive HTTP UserAgent strings from the MC. B. The security team believes that a wireless endpoint connected to the MC is launching an attack and wants to examine the traffic more closely. C. You want the MC to analyze wireless clients\\’ traffic at a lower level so that the ArubaOS firewall can control the traffic I based on the application. D. You want the MC to analyze wireless clients\\’ traffic at a lower level so that the ArubaOS firewall can control Web traffic based on the destination URL.
Correct Answer: C
6. What correctly describes the Pairwise Master Key (PMK) in the specified wireless security protocol?
A. In WPA3-Enterprise, the PMK is unique per session and derived using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals. B. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is unique per session and derived using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals. C. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is derived directly from the passphrase and is the same for every session. D. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is the same for each session and is communicated to clients that authenticate
Correct Answer: A
7. What is a guideline for managing local certificates on an ArubaOS-Switch?
A. Before installing the local certificate, create a trust anchor (TA) profile with the root CA certificate for the certificate that you will install B. Install an Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) certificate to simplify the process of enrolling and re-enrolling for a certificate C. Generate the certificate signing request (CSR) with a program offline, then, install both the certificate and the private key on the switch in a single file. D. Create a self-signed certificate online on the switch because ArubaOS-Switches do not support CA-signed certificates.
Correct Answer: C
8. What is the difference between radius and TACACS+?
A. RADIUS combines the authentication and authorization process while TACACS+ separates them. B. RADIUS uses TCP for Its connection protocol, while TACACS+ uses UDP for its connection protocol. C. RADIUS encrypts the complete packet, white TACACS+ only offers partial encryption. D. RADIUS uses Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) in its messages, while TACACS+ does not use them.
Correct Answer: A
9. What is symmetric encryption?
A. It simultaneously creates ciphertext and a same-size MAC. B. any form of encryption mat ensures that the ciphertext Is the same length as the plaintext. C. It uses the same key to encrypt plaintext as to decrypt the ciphertext. D. It uses a Key that is double the size of the message that it encrypts.
Correct Answer: C
10. What is an example of phishing?
A. An attacker sends TCP messages to many different ports to discover which ports are open. B. An attacker checks a user\’s password by using trying millions of potential passwords. C. An attacker lures clients to connect to a software-based AP that is using a legitimate SSID. D. An attacker sends emails posing as a service team member to get users to disclose their passwords.
Correct Answer: D
11. You have an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC). for which you are already using Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to authenticate access to the Web Ul with usernames and passwords You now want to enable managers to use certificates to log in to the Web Ul CPPM will continue to act as the external server to check the names in managers\\’ certificates and tell the MC the managers\\’ correct rote in addition to enabling certificate authentication. What is a step that you should complete on the MC?
A. Verify that the MC has the correct certificates, and add RadSec to the RADIUS server configuration for CPPM B. install all of the managers\\’ certificates on the MC as OCSP Responder certificates C. Verify that the MC trusts CPPM\\’s HTTPS certificate by uploading a trusted CA certificate Also, configure a CPPM username and password on the MC D. Create a local admin account mat uses certificates in the account, specify the correct trusted CA certificate and external authentication
Correct Answer: A
12. You have been instructed to look in the ArubaOS Security Dashboard\\’s client list Your goal is to find clients mat belong to the company and have connected to devices that might belong to hackers. Which client fits this description?
A. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6d;a4; Client Classification Authorized; AP Classification, interfering B. MAC address d8:50:e6 f3;6e;c5; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Neighbor C. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6e;60; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Interfering D. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;TO;ab; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Rogue
Correct Answer: C
13. Refer to the exhibit.
This company has ArubaOS-Switches. The exhibit shows one access layer switch, Swllcn-2. as an example, but the campus actually has more switches. The company wants to stop any internal users from exploiting ARP. What Is the proper way to configure the switches to meet these requirements?
A. On Switch-1, enable ARP protection globally and enable ARP protection on all VLANs. B. On Switch-2, make ports connected to employee devices trusted ports for ARP protection C. On Switch-2, enable DHCP snooping globally and on VLAN 201 before enabling ARP protection D. On Switch-2, configure static PP-to-MAC bindings for all end-user devices on the network
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You are using RAID with a FortiAnalyzer that supports software RAID, and one of the hard disks on FortiAnalyzer has failed. What is the recommended method to replace the disk?
A. Shut down FortiAnalyzer and then replace the disk B. Downgrade your RAID level, replace the disk, and then upgrade your RAID level C. Clear all RAID alarms and replace the disk while FortiAnalyzer is still running D. Perform a hot swap
Correct Answer: A
Which statements are true of Administrative Domains (ADOMs) in FortiAnalyzer? (Choose two.)
A. ADOMs are enabled by default. B. ADOMs constrain other administrator\’s access privileges to a subset of devices in the device list. C. Once enabled, the Device Manager, FortiView, Event Management, and Reports tab display per ADOM. D. All administrators can create ADOMs–not just the admin administrator.
Correct Answer: BC
Which two statements are true regarding FortiAnalyzer log forwarding? (Choose two.)
A. In aggregation mode, you can forward logs to syslog and CEF servers as well. B. Forwarding mode forwards logs in real time only to other FortiAnalyzer devices. C. Aggregation mode stores logs and content files and uploads them to another FortiAnalyzer device at a scheduled time. D. Both modes, forwarding and aggregation, support encryption of logs between devices.
Why is the total quota less than the total system storage?
A. 3.6% of the system storage is already being used. B. Some space is reserved for system use, such as storage of compression files, upload files, and temporary report files C. The oftpd process has not archived the logs yet D. The logfiled process is just estimating the total quota
What statements are true regarding FortiAnalyzer \’s treatment of high availability (HA) dusters? (Choose two)
A. FortiAnalyzer distinguishes different devices by their serial number. B. FortiAnalyzer receives logs from d devices in a duster. C. FortiAnalyzer receives bgs only from the primary device in the cluster. D. FortiAnalyzer only needs to know (he serial number of the primary device in the cluster-it automaticaly discovers the other devices.
Correct Answer: AB
Which two statements are true regarding log fetching on FortiAnalyzer? (Choose two.)
A. A FortiAnalyzer device can perform either the fetch server or client role, and it can perform two roles at the same time with the same FortiAnalyzer devices at the other end. B. Log fetching can be done only on two FortiAnalyzer devices that are running the same firmware version. C. Log fetching allows the administrator to fetch analytics logs from another FortiAnalyzer for redundancy. D. Log fetching allows the administrator to run queries and reports against historical data by retrieving archived logs from one FortiAnalyzer device and sending them to another FortiAnalyzer device.
Which two statements are true regarding FortiAnalyzer operating modes? (Choose two.)
A. When in collector mode, FortiAnalyzer collects logs from multiple devices and forwards these logs in the original binary format. B. Collector mode is the default operating mode. C. When in collector mode. FortiAnalyzer supports event management and reporting features. D. By deploying different FortiAnalyzer devices with collector and analyzer mode in a network, you can improve the overall performance of log receiving, analysis, and reporting
In FortiAnalyzer\’s FormView, source and destination IP addresses from FortiGate devices are not resolving to a hostname. How can you resolve the source and destination IPs, without introducing any additional performance impact to FortiAnalyzer?
A. Configure local DNS servers on FortiAnalyzer B. Resolve IPs on FortiGate C. Configure # set resolve-ip enable in the system FortiView settings D. Resolve IPs on a per-ADOM basis to reduce delay on FortiView while IPs resolve
Correct Answer: B
What are offline logs on FortiAnalyzer?
A. Compressed logs, which are also known as archive logs, are considered to be offline logs. B. When you restart FortiAnalyzer. all stored logs are considered to be offline logs. C. Logs that are indexed and stored in the SQL database. D. Logs that are collected from offline devices after they boot up.
What is the recommended method of expanding disk space on a FortiAnalyzer VM?
A. From the VM host manager, add an additional virtual disk and use the #execute lvm extend command to expand the storage B. From the VM host manager, expand the size of the existing virtual disk C. From the VM host manager, expand the size of the existing virtual disk and use the # execute format disk command to reformat the disk D. From the VM host manager, add an additional virtual disk and rebuild your RAID array
A. FortiAnalyzer is dropping logs. B. FortiAnalyzer is indexing logs faster than logs are being received. C. FortiAnalyzer has temporarily stopped receiving logs so older logs\’ can be indexed. D. The sqlplugind daemon is ahead in indexing by one log.
After you have moved a registered logging device out of one ADOM and into a new ADOM, what is the purpose of running the following CLI command?
A. To reset the disk quota enforcement to default B. To remove the analytics logs of the device from the old database C. To migrate the archive logs to the new ADOM D. To populate the new ADOM with analytical logs for the moved device, so you can run reports
Correct Answer: D
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Answers are posted at the end of the question.
Host criticality is an example of which option?
A. a default whitelist B. a default traffic profile C. a host attribute D. a correlation policy
Which statement is true concerning static NAT?
A. Static NAT supports only TCP traffic. B. Static NAT is normally deployed for outbound traffic only. C. Static NAT provides a one-to-one mapping between IP addresses. D. Static NAT provides a many-to-one mapping between IP addresses.
Which statement is true in regard to the Sourcefire Security Intelligence lists?
A. The global blacklist universally allows all traffic through the managed device. B. The global whitelist cannot be edited. C. IP addresses can be added to the global blacklist by clicking on interactive graphs in Context Explorer. D. The Security Intelligence lists cannot be updated.
Which option is used to implement suppression in the Rule Management user interface?
A. Rule Category B. Global C. Source D. Protocol
Access control policy rules can be configured to block based on the conditions that you specify in each rule. Which behavior block response do you use if you want to deny and reset the connection of HTTP traffic that meets the conditions of the access control rule?
A. interactive block with reset B. interactive block C. block D. block with reset
The IP address::/0 is equivalent to which IPv4 address and netmask?
A. 0.0.0.0 B. 0.0.0.0/0 C. 0.0.0.0/24 D. The IP address::/0 is not valid IPv6 syntax.
Other than navigating to the Network File Trajectory page for a file, which option is an alternative way of accessing the network trajectory of a file?
A. from Context Explorer B. from the Analysis menu C. from the cloud D. from the Defense Center
Which policy controls malware blocking configuration?
A. file policy B. malware policy C. access control policy D. IPS policy
Which option is true when configuring an access control rule?
A. You can use geolocation criteria to specify source IP addresses by country and continent, as well as destination IP addresses by country and continent. B. You can use geolocation criteria to specify destination IP addresses by country but not source IP addresses. C. You can use geolocation criteria to specify source and destination IP addresses by country but not by continent. D. You can use geolocation criteria to specify source and destination IP addresses by continent but not by country.
Stacking allows a primary device to utilize which resources of secondary devices?
A. interfaces, CPUs, and memory B. CPUs and memory C. interfaces, CPUs, memory, and storage D. interfaces and storage
Where do you configure widget properties?
A. dashboard properties B. the Widget Properties button in the title bar of each widget C. the Local Configuration page D. Context Explorer
When configuring an LDAP authentication object, which server type is available?
A. Microsoft Active Directory B. Yahoo C. Oracle D. SMTP
Alert priority is established in which way? A. event classification B. priority.conf file C. host criticality selection D. through Context Explorer
Context Explorer can be accessed by a subset of user roles. Which predefined user role is not valid for FireSIGHT event access?
A. Administrator B. Intrusion Administrator C. Security Analyst D. Security Analyst (Read-Only)
Which event source can have a default workflow configured?
A. user events B. discovery events C. server events D. connection events
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Citrix 1Y0-440 exam practice test questions 1-13 share online
QUESTION 1 Scenario: A Citrix Architect has set up NetScaler MPX devices in high availability mode with version 18.104.22.168 nc. These are placed behind a Cisco ASA 5505 Firewall. The Cisco ASA Firewall is configured to block traffic using access control lists. The network address translation (NAT) is also performed on the firewall. The following requirements were captured by the architect during the discussion held as part of the NetScaler security implementation project with the customer\\’s security team: The NetScaler MPX device: 1. should monitor the rate of traffic either on a specific virtual entity or on the device. It should be able to mitigate the attacks from a hostile client sending a flood of requests. The NetScaler device should be able to stop the HTTP, TCP, and DNS based requests. 2. needs to protect backend servers from overloading. 3. needs to queue all the incoming requests on the virtual server level instead of the service level. 4. should provide protection against well-known Windows exploits, virus-infected personal computers, centrally managed automated botnets, compromised webservers, known spammers/hackers, and phishing proxies. 5. should provide flexibility to enforce the decided level of security check inspections for the requests originating from a specific geolocation database. 6. should block the traffic based on a pre-determined header length, URL length, and cookie length. The device should ensure that characters such as a single straight quote (“); backslash (\); and semicolon (;) are either blocked, transformed, or dropped while being sent to the backend server. Which security feature should the architect configure to meet these requirements? A. Global Server Load balancing with Dynamic RTT B. Global Server Load Balancing with DNS views C. Geolocation-based blocking using Application Firewall D. geolocation-based blocking using Responder policies Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A Citrix Architect has met with a team of Workspacelab members for a design discussion. They have captured the following requirements for NetScaler design project: 1. The authentication must be deployed for the users from the workspacelab.com and vendorlab.com domains. 2. The workspacelab users connecting from the internal (workspacelab) network should be authenticated using LDAP. 3. The workspacelab users connecting from the external network should be authenticated using LDAP and RADIUS. 4. The vendorlab users should be authenticated using Active Directory Federation Service. 5. The user credentials must NOT be shared between workspacelab and vendorlab. 6. Single Sign-on must be performed between StoreFront and NetScaler Gateway. 7. A domain drop down list must be provided if the used connects to the NetScaler gateway virtual server externally. Which method must the architect utilize for user management between the two domains? A. Create shadow accounts for the users of the Workspacelab domain in the Vendorlab domain. B. Create a global catalog containing the objects of Vendorlab and Workspacelab domains. C. Create shadow accounts for the Vendorlab domain in the Workspacelab domain. D. Create a two-way trust between the Vendorlab and Workspacelab domains. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Scenario: A Citrix Architect has implemented two high availability pairs of MPX 5500 and MPX 11500 devices respectively with 22.214.171.124 nc version. The NetScaler devices are set up to handle NetScaler Gateway, Load Balancing, Application Firewall, and Content Switching. The Workspacelab infrastructure is set up to be monitored with NMAS version 126.96.36.199 nc by the Workspacelab administrators. The Workspacelab team wants to implement one more pair of NetScaler MPX 7500 devices with version 188.8.131.52 nc. The Citrix consulting team has assigned the task to implement these NetScaler devices in the infrastructure and set them up to be monitored and managed by NMAS. The following are the requirements that were discussed during the project initiation call: 1. NMAS should be configured to get the infrastructure information under sections such as HDX Insight, WEB Insight, and Security Insight. 2. Configuration on the new MPX devices should be identical to MPX 11500 devices. 3. Configuration changes after the deployment and initial setup should be optimized using NMAS. 4. NMAS should be utilized to configure templates that can be utilized by the Workspacelab team in future deployment. 5. As per the requirement from the Workspacelab team, NMAS should be store the audited data for only 15 days. Which process should the architect utilize to ensure that the deployment of MPX 11500 devices are optimized and that it is correct, before deploying the devices in production? A. Under Stylebooks; Inbuilt and composite stylebook templates should be utilized prior to deployment. B. Under Stylebooks; Public and composite stylebook templates should be utilized prior to deployment. C. Under Configuration Management; Configuration Audit and Advice should be used prior to deployment. D. Under Configuration jobs; Configuration Audit and Advice should be used prior to deployment. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess an existing NetScaler multi-site deployment. The deployment is using Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) configured in a parent-child configuration. Click the Exhibit button to view the diagram of the current GSLB configuration and parent-child relationships, as well as the status of the sites and the connectivity between them.
Based on the displayed configuration and status, Chil_site1_______ a connection from _______. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. rejects; SiteP2 and SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1 B. rejects; SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1 C. accepts; SiteP3; becomes its child site D. accepts; SiteP2; becomes its child site E. does NOT receive; SiteP2 and SiteP3; remains a child site of SiteP1 F. rejects; SiteP2; remains a child site of SiteP1 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess an existing NetScaler configuration. The customer recently found that certain user groups were receiving access to an internal web server with an authorization configuration that does NOT align with the designed security requirements. Click the Exhibit button view the configured authorization settings for the web server.
Which item should the architect change or remove to align the authorization configuration with the security requirements of the organization? A. Item 1 B. Item 3 C. Item 4 D. Item 5 E. Item 2 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 Scenario: A Citrix Architect has deployed two MPX devices, 184.108.40.206 nc and MPX 11500 models, in high availability (HA) pair for the Workspace labs team. The deployment method is two-arm and the devices are installed behind a CISCO ASA 5585 Firewall. The architect enabled the following features on the NetScaler devices. Content Switching, SSL Offloading, Load Balancing, NetScaler Gateway, Application Firewall in hybrid security and Appflow. All are enabled to send monitoring information to NMAS 220.127.116.11 nc build. The architect is preparing to configure load balancing for Microsoft Exchange 2016 server. The following requirements were discussed during the implementation: 1. All traffic needs to be segregated based on applications, and the fewest number of IP addresses should be utilized during the configuration 2. All traffic should be secured and any traffic coming into HTTP should be redirected to HTTPS. 3. Single Sign-on should be created for Microsoft Outlook web access (OWA). 4. NetScaler should recognize Uniform Resource Identifier (URl) and close the session to NetScaler when users hit the Logoff button in Microsoft Outlook web access. 5. Users should be able to authenticate using either user principal name (UPN) or sAMAccountName. 6. The Layer 7 monitor should be configured to monitor the Microsoft Outlook web access servers and the monitor probes must be sent on SSL Which monitor will meet these requirements? A. add lb monitor mon_rpc HTTP-ECV -send “GET /rpc/healthcheck.htm” recv 200 -LRTM DISABLED B. add lb monitor mon_rpc HTTP-ECV -send “GET /rpc/healthcheck.htm” recv 200 -LRTM ENABLED C. add lb monitor mon_rpc HTTP -send “GET /rpc/healthcheck.htm” recv 200 -LRTM DISABLED -secure YES D. add lb monitor mon_rpc HTTP-ECV -send “GET/rpc/healthcheck.htm” recv 200 -LRTM DISABLED -secure YES Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to assess an existing on-premises NetScaler deployment which includes Advanced Endpoint Analysis scans. During a previous security audit, the team discovered that certain endpoint devices were able to perform unauthorized actions despite NOT meeting pre-established criteria. The issue was isolated to several endpoint analysis (EPA) scan settings. Click the Exhibit button to view the endpoint security requirements and configured EPA policy settings.
Which setting is preventing the security requirements of the organization from being met? A. Item 6 B. Item 7 C. Item 1 D. Item 3 E. Item 5 F. Item 2 G. Item 4 Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 8 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a hybrid XenApp and XenDesktop environment which will include as well as resource locations in an on-premises datacenter and Microsoft Azure. Organizational details and requirements are as follows: 1. Active XenApp and XenDesktop Service subscription 2. No existing NetScaler deployment 3. Minimization of additional costs 4. All users should correct directly to the resource locations containing the servers which will host HDX sessions Click the Exhibit button to view the conceptual environment architecture.
The architect should use___________ in Location A, and should use _______________ in Location B. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. No NetScaler products; NetScaler ICA Proxy (cloud-licensed) B. NetScaler Gateway as a Service; NetScaler ICA Proxy (cloud-licensed) C. NetScaler Gateway as a Service; no NetScaler products D. No NetScaler products; NetScaler Gateway appliance E. NetScaler gateway as a Service; NetScaler ADC (BYO) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Scenario: A Citrix Architect and a team of Workspacelab members have met for a design discussion about the NetScaler Design Project. They captured the following requirements: 1. Two pairs of NetScaler MPX appliances will be deployed in the DMZ network and the internal network. 2. High availability will be accessible between the pair of NetScaler MPX appliances in the DMZ network. 3. Multi-factor authentication must be configured for the NetScaler Gateway virtual server. 4. The NetScaler Gateway virtual server is integrated with XenApp/XenDesktop environment. 5. Load balancing must be deployed for the users from the workspacelab.com and vendorlab.com domains. 6. The logon page must show the workspacelab logo. 7. Certificate verification must be performed to identify and extract the username. 8. The client certificate must have UserPrincipalName as a subject. 9. All the managed workstations for the workspace users must have a client identifications certificate installed on it. 10.The workspacelab users connecting from a managed workstation with a client certificate on it should be authenticated using LDAP. 11.The workspacelab users connecting from a workstation without a client certificate should be authenticated using LDAP and RADIUS. 12.The vendorlab users should be authenticated using Active Directory Federation Service. 13.The user credentials must NOT be shared between workspacelab and vendorlab. 14.Single Sign-on must be performed between StoreFront and NetScaler Gateway. 15.A domain drop down list must be provided if the user connects to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server externally. 16.The domain of the user connecting externally must be identified using the domain selected from the domain drop down list. On performing the deployment, the architect observes that users are always prompted with two-factor authentication when trying to assess externally from an unmanaged workstation. Click the exhibit button to view the configuration.
What should the architect do to correct this configuration? A. Unbind LoginSchema Policy LDAP_RADIUS from the virtual server. B. Bind the Portal theme as Domaindropdown. C. Bind the LoginSchema Policy Domaindropdown to priority 90. D. Bind the Default LoginSchema Policy as Domaindropdown. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 For which three reasons should a Citrix Architect perform a capabilities assessment when designing and deploying a new NetScaler in an existing environment? (Choose three.) A. Understand the skill set of the company. B. Assess and identify potential risks for the design and build phase. C. Establish and prioritize the key drivers behind a project. D. Determine operating systems and application usage. E. Identify other planned projects and initiatives that must be integrated with the design and build phase. Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 11 A Citrix Architect has deployed NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) to monitor a high availability pair of NetScaler VPX devices. The architect needs to deploy automated configuration backup to meet the following requirements: 1. The configuration backup file must be protected using a password. 2. The configuration backup must be performed each day at 8:00 AM GMT. 3. The configuration backup must also be performed if any changes are made in the ns.conf file. 4. Once the transfer is successful, auto-delete the configuration file from the NMAS. Which SNMP trap will trigger the configuration file backup? A. netScalerConfigSave B. sysTotSaveConfigs C. netScalerConfigChange D. sysconfigSave Correct Answer: A Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler-mas/12/instance-management/how-to-backup-and-restore-usingmas.html#configuring-instance-backup-settings
QUESTION 12 Scenario: Based on a discussion between a Citrix Architect and a team of Workspacelab members, the MPX Logical layout for Workspacelab has been created across three (3) sites. They captured the following requirements during the design discussion held for a NetScaler design project: 1. All three (3) Workspacelab sites (DC, NDR, and DR) will have similar NetScaler configurations and design. 2. Both external and internal NetScaler MPX appliances will have Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) configured and deployed in Active/Passive mode. 3. GSLB should resolve both A and AAA DNS queries. 4. In the GSLB deployment, the NDR site will act as backup for the DC site, whereas the DR site will act as backup for the NDR site. 5. When the external NetScaler replies to DNS traffic coming in through Cisco Firepower IPS, the replies should be sent back through the same path. 6. On the internal NetScaler, both the front-end VIP and backend SNIP will be part of the same subnet. 7. The external NetScaler will act as default gateway for the backend servers. 8. All three (3) sites, DC, NDR, and DR, will have two (2) links to the Internet from different service providers configured in Active/Standby mode. Which design decision must the architect make the design requirements above? A. MAC-based Forwarding must be enabled on the External NetScaler Pair. B. NSIP of the External NetScaler must be configured as the default gateway on the backend servers. C. The Internal NetScaler must be deployed in Transparent mode. D. The ADNS service must be configured with an IPv6 address. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to configure a full VPN session profile to meet the following requirements: 1. Users should be able to send the traffic only for the allowed networks through the VPN tunnel. 2. Only the DNS requests ending with the configured DNS suffix workspacelab.com must be sent to NetScaler Gateway. 3. If the DNS query does NOT contain a domain name, then DNS requests must be sent to NetScaler gateway. Which settings will meet these requirements? A. Split Tunnel to OFF, Split DNS Both B. Split Tunnel to ON, Split DNS Local C. Split Tunnel to OFF, Split DNS Remote D. Split Tunnel to ON, Split DNS Remote Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 Which three statements are true regarding how Autonomous Database provides data security? (Choose three.) A. Data is encrypted at rest using transparent data encryption. B. Network connections from clients to Autonomous Database are encrypted using the client credentials wallet. C. Users are given OS logons or SYSDBA privileges to prevent phishing attacks. D. Oracle automatically applies security updates to ensure data is not vulnerable to known attack vectors. Correct Answer: ABD Reference: https://www.oracle.com/database/technologies/datawarehouse-bigdata/adb-faqs.html
QUESTION 2 Once you have a connection to the Autonomous Data Warehouse, how do you import tables into the Oracle Analytics Cloud (OAC)? A. Replicate the table using Golden Gate B. Create a Data Set C. Load data using Data Pump D. Import Table Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which is NOT required to connect to Autonomous Database from SQL developer? A. Database name B. Service name C. Wallet file D. Username and password Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Given the steps: 1. Create Oracle Machine Learning User 2. Create projects 3. Create workspaces 4. Create Notebooks 5. Run SQL Scripts Which two steps are out of order when working with Oracle Machine learning? (Choose two.) A. Create Oracle Machine Learning User B. Create workspaces C. Create Notebooks D. Run SQL Scripts E. Create projects Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 5 The 3rd party application that your customer wants to migrate to Autonomous Database (ADB) has some specific demands like tablespace names, usernames, and init.ora parameters. The decision was made to adhere to the suggested migration method using an instant client and the data pump version that was suggested (and came with it). Which statement is true about the migration of the application\\’s database success? A. The migration can be technically a success but the 3-rd party vendor needs to support the result. B. The suggested data pump version will create an alias for non-standard tablespace names so the migration is successful. C. The tablespace names will result in a blocking error during data pump import because of ADB limitations. D. The migration can be a success, both technically and functional due to data pump enhancements. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 1 You have deployed a web application targeting a global audience across multiple Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) regions. You decide to use Traffic Management Geo-Location based Steering Policy to serve web requests to users from the region closest to the user. Within each region, you have deployed a public load balancer with 4 servers in a backend set. During a DR test disable all web servers in one of the regions however, traffic Management does not automatically direct all users to the other region. Which two are possible causes? A. You did not set up a Route Table associated with load Balancer\\’s subnet B. You did not set up an HTTP Health Check associated with Load Balancer public IP in the disabled region. C. Rather than using Geo-Location based Steering Policy, you should use Failover Policy Type to serve traffic. D. One of the two working web servers In the other region did not pass Its HTTP health check E. You did not correctly set up the Load Balancer HTTP health check policy associated with the backend set Correct Answer: BE Managing Traffic Management GEOLOCATION Steering Policies Geolocation steering policies distribute DNS traffic to different endpoints based on the location of the end-user. Customers can define geographic regions composed of originating continent, countries, or states/provinces (North America) and define a separate endpoint or set of endpoints for each region. The Health Checks service allows you to monitor the health of IP addresses and hostnames, as measured from geographic vantage points of your choosing, using HTTP and ping probes. After configuring a health check, you can view the monitor\\’s results. The results include the location from which the host was monitored, the availability of the endpoint, and the date and time the test was performed. Also, you can Combine Managing Traffic Management GEOLOCATION Steering Policies with Oracle Health Checks to failover from one region to another The Load Balancing service provides health status indicators that use your health check policies to report on the general health of your load balancers and their components. if you misconfigure the health check Protocol between the Load balancer and backend set that can lead to not get an accurate response as the example below If you run a TCP-level health check against an HTTP service, you might not get an accurate response. The TCP handshake can succeed and indicate that the service is up even when the HTTP service is ly configured or having other issues. Although the health check appears good customers might experience transaction failures.
QUESTION 2 A customer has a Virtual Machine instance running in their Oracle Cloud Infrastructure tenancy. They realized that they wrongly picked a smaller shape for their compute instance. They are reaching out to you to help them fix the issue. Which of the below options is best recommended to suggest to the customer? A. Delete the running instance and spin up a new instance with the desired shape. B. Change the shape of the instance without reboot but stop all the applications running on the instance beforehand to prevent data corruption. C. Change the shape of the virtual machine instance using the Change Shape feature available in the console. D. OCI doesn\\’t allow such an operation. Correct Answer: C You can change the shape of a virtual machine (VM) instance without having to rebuild your instances or redeploy your applications. This lets you scale up your Compute resources for increased performance, or scale down to reduce cost. When you change the shape of an instance, you select a different processor, a number of cores, amount of memory, network bandwidth, and maximum number of VNICs for the instance. The instance\\’s public and private IP addresses, volume attachments, and VNIC attachments remain the same.
QUESTION 3 You are helping a customer troubleshoot a problem. The customer has several Oracle Linux servers in Based on cost considerations, which option will fix this Issue? A. Create a Public Load Balancer In front of the servers and add the servers to the Backend Set of the Public Load Balancer. B. Create another Internet Gateway and configure it as a route target for the private subnet. C. Implement a NAT instance In the public subnet of the VCN and configure the NAT instance as the route target for the private subnet. D. Create a NAT gateway in the VCN and configure the NAT gateway as the route target for the private subnet. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 As a part of the migration exercise for an existing on-premises application to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCT), yon ore required to transfer a 7 TB file to OCI Object Storage. You have decided to upload the functionality of Object Storage. Which two statements are true? A. Active multipart upload can be checked by listing all parts that have been uploaded, however, It Is not possible to list information for individual object part in an active multipart upload B. It is possible to spill this file into multiple parts using the APIs provided by Object Storage. C. It is possible to split this file into multiple parts using the clone tool provided by Object Storage. D. After initiating a multipart upload by making a CreateMultlPartUpload RESI API Call, the upload remains active until you explicitly commit it or abort. E. Contiguous numbers need to be assigned for each part so that Object Storage constructs the object by ordering, part numbers in ascending order Correct Answer: AD You can check on an active multipart upload by listing all parts that have been uploaded. (You cannot list information for an individual object part in an active multipart upload.) After you finish creating object parts, initiate a multipart upload by making a CreateMultipartUpload REST API call. Provide the object name and any object metadata. Object Storage responds with a unique upload ID that you must include in any requests related to this multipart upload. Object Storage also marks the upload as active. The upload remains active until you explicitly commit it or abort it.
QUESTION 5 An automobile company wants to deploy their CRM application for Oracle Database on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OC1) DB Systems for one of the major clients. In compliance with the Business Continuity Program of the client, they need to provide a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 24 hours and a Recovery time objective (RTO) of 24 hours and Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of 1 hour. The CRM application should be an available oven in my event that entire on The region is down. Which approach Is the most suitable and cost-effective configuration for this scenario? A. Deploy a 1 node VM Oracle database in one region and replicate the database to a 1 node VM Oracle database in another region using a manual setup and configuration of Oracle Data Guard. B. Deploy a 2 node Virtual Machine (VM) Oracle RAC database in one region and replicate the database to a 2 node VM Oracle RAC database in another region using a manual setup and C. Deploy a 1 node VM Oracle database in one region. Manual Configure a Recovery Manager (RMAN) database backup schedule to take hourly database backups. Asynchronously copy the database backups to object storage in another OCI region, If the primary OCI region is unavailable launch a new 1 new VM Database in the other OCI region to restore the production database from the backup. D. Deploy an Autonomous Transaction Processing (Serverless) database in one region and replicate it to an Autonomous Transaction Processing (Serverless) database in another region Oracle GoldenGate. Correct Answer: A You can configure the Autonomous Database instance as a target database for Oracle GoldenGate. But You can\\’t set up Oracle Autonomous Database as a source database for Oracle GoldenGate. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 24 hours and Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of 1 hour -To provision new VM and restore the production database from the backup on object storage, will exceed the RTO 1 hour – You can create the standby DB system in a different availability domain from the primary DB system for availability and disaster recovery purposes. With Data Guard and switchover/failover can meet RTO 1 hour. -RAC Database is not required in this solution. Standalone will be most suitable and cost-effective
QUESTION 1 Your customer has the finance system in a third party system and you have to send the payroll costing entries to a third party system. Which two options can be used to extract the data from the Cloud Payroll system? A. You cannot extract the costing results from cloud payroll to send it to a third-party financial system. B. You can use the OTBI Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2 You are creating a car allowance element. The rules for this allowance need to reference the salary balance. How can Do you meet this requirement? A. Enter the salary balance value as an input value on the car allowance element. B. Associate the salary balance to a calculation card and reference the calculation card in the allowance element formula. C. Create a balanced feed to feed the salary balance to the car allowance element. D. Reference the database item and appropriate dimension for the salary balance in the allowance element formula. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which two statements regarding the relationship between legal entities, legal employers, and payroll statutory units (PSU) are correct? (Choose two.) A. A legal employer can be associated with multiple PSUs B. A legal entity can be both a legal employer and a PSU C. Legal entities responsible for paying workers D. PSUs are legal entities responsible for payroll tax and social insurance reporting Correct Answer: CD Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/financials/r13-update17d/faigl/legal-entities.html#FAIGL1453110
QUESTION 4 Which option represents the costing hierarchy necessary to build a cost account when the element costing is defined with costing type as “Cost”? A. Element Eligibility, Payroll, Department, Job or Position, Person, Element Entry B. Payroll, Element Eligibility, Department, Job, Position, Person Person Element, Element Entry C. Payroll, Department, Job or Position, Element Eligibility, Person, Element Entry D. Payroll, Person Element Entry, Department, Job or Position, Person, Element Eligibility Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 A customer\\’s organization has a grade structure with four grades –C1, C2, C3, and C4. You have a car allowance element, which is at Assignment level, for which only the employees with grade C3 and C4 are eligible. You should not be able to create an element entry for employees with grades C1 and C2. How do you define the element eligibility for the Car Allowance element? A. Define the element eligibility as an Open Eligibility and create an element entry only for employees with grades C3 and C4. B. Define multiple-element eligibilities using grade C1, C2, C3, and C4 but create an element entry only for employees with grades C3 and C4. C. Define multiple-element eligibilities using grade C3 and C4 only. D. You cannot meet the requirement as you cannot create element eligibility using grade as the eligibility criteria. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 1 Demand is high leading up to the Christmas holiday every year between Dec 20 and Dec 24 and not on Christmas day (Dec 25). Your customer has two demand plans. Describe the steps to model Christmas causal factor in both demand plans. A. Open a demand plan and add a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Create a table displaying the causal factor measure and relevant time period and modify as required. Causal factor changes in this demand plan will reflect in the 2nd demand plan also. B. Open a demand plan and add a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Create a table displaying the causal factor measure and relevant time period and modify as required. Causal factor changes are plan specific, so repeat the steps in the 2nd demand plan. C. Use FBDI to create a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Place value of 1 from Dec 20 to Dec 34. Causal factor upload to one demand plan will reflect in the 2nd demand plan also. D. Use FBDI to create a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Place value of 1 from Dec 20 to Dec 24. Causal factor changes are plan specific, so repeat the steps in the 2nd demand plan. E. Open a demand plan and edit Christmas casual factor measure. Place value of one from Dec 20 to Dec 24 and zero for non-impacted days including Dec 25. Causal factor changes in this demand plan will reflect in the 2nd demand plan also. F. Open a demand plan and edit Christmas casual factor measure. Place value of one from Dec 20 to Dec 24 and zero for non-impacted days including Dec 25. Causal factor changes are plan specific, so repeat the steps in the 2nd demand plan. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is one method of associating a Safety Stock Quantity value to an item? A. Upload the value using File Based Data Import (FBDI) B. Enter your value in the Safety Stock Quantity column in the Items page. C. Run the Safety Stock Quantity Update Process. D. Enter your value in the Safety Stock Quantity Override column in the Items page. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Your client has a requirement to restrict Supply Plan data access. Identify three Data Access Set detail entities that can be used to restrict plan data access. (Choose three.) A. Supplier B. Item C. Transaction Type D. Customer E. Material Planner F. Demand Class Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 4 In order for Supply and Demand Plans to run successfully, which three Configure Planning Analytic tasks must be completed? (Choose three.) A. Set up Levels and Attributes B. Set up Measure Catalogs C. Run the Configure Dimension Catalog process D. Set up Default Catalogs E. Set up Dimension Catalogs F. Set up Hierarchy Attributes Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 5 You have run a plan for your organization and there were sales orders that have been set up for drop shipment that you cannot see in the plan. Which two options explain why the sales orders cannot be seen in the plan? (Choose two.) A. Drop Ship Item Validation Org has not been set up. B. Drop Ship Demand Class has not be set up. C. Supplier not configured in Manage Planning Source Systems D. Include drop ship demands and supplies flag has not been checked on your plan options. E. Planning Profile \\’Enable Planning for Drop Shipments\\’ has not been set to \\’Yes\\’. Correct Answer: BC
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QUESTION 1 The MAIN reason for requiring that all computer clocks across an organization be synchronized is to: A. prevent omission or duplication of transactions. B. ensure smooth data transition from client machines to servers. C. ensure that e-mail messages have accurate time stamps. D. support the incident investigation process. Correct Answer: D During an investigation of incidents, audit logs are used as evidence, and the time stamp information in them is useful. If the clocks are not synchronized, investigations will be more difficult because a time line of events might not be easily established. Time-stamping a transaction has nothing to do with the update itself. Therefore, the possibility of omission or duplication of transactions does not exist. Data transfer has nothing to do with the time stamp. While the time stamp on an e-mail may not be accurate, this is not a significant issue.
QUESTION 2 A maturity model can be used to aid the implementation of IT governance by identifying: A. critical success factors B. performance drivers C. improvement opportunities D. accountabilities Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which of the following step of PDCA request a corrective actions on significant differences between the actual versus the planned result? A. Plan B. Do C. Check D. Act Correct Answer: D Act – Request corrective actions on significant differences between actual and planned results. Analyze the differences to determine their root causes. Determine where to apply changes that will include improvement of the process or product. When a pass through these four steps does not result in the need to improve, the scope to which PDCA is applied may be refined to plan and improve with more detail in the next iteration of the cycle, or attention needs to be placed in a different stage of the process. For your exam you should know the information below: PDCA (plan?o?heck?ct or plan?o?heck?djust) is an iterative four-step management method used in business for the control and continuous improvement of processes and products. It is also known as the Deming circle/cycle/wheel, Stewart cycle, control circle/cycle, or plan?o?tudy?ct (PDSA). Another version of this PDCA cycle is OPDCA. The added “O” stands for observation or as some versions say “Grasp the current condition.” The steps in each successive PDCA cycle are:
“CHECK” and “ACT” steps. CHECK – Study the actual results (measured and collected in “DO” above) and compare against the expected results (targets or goals from the “PLAN”) to ascertain any differences The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: CISA review manual 2014 page number 107
QUESTION 4 Which of the following access control situations represents the MOST serious control weakness? A. Computer operators have access to system level flowcharts. B. Programmers have access to development hardware. C. End users have access to program development tools. D. System developers have access to production data. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which of the following penetration tests would MOST effectively evaluate incident handling and response capabilities of an organization? A. Targeted testing B. External testing C. internal testing D. Double-blind testing Correct Answer: D In a double-blind test, the administrator and security staff are not aware of the test, which will result in an assessment of the incident handling and response capability in an organization. In targeted, external, and internal testing, the system administrator and security staff are aware of the tests since they are informed before the start of the tests.
QUESTION 6 An organization has implemented a disaster recovery plan. Which of the following steps should be carried out next? A. Obtain senior management sponsorship. B. Identify business needs. C. Conduct a paper test. D. Perform a system restore test. Correct Answer: C A best practice would be to conduct a paper test. Senior management sponsorship and business needs identification should have been obtained prior to implementing the plan. A paper test should be conducted first, followed by system or full testing.
QUESTION 7 An IS auditor is reviewing the physical security measures of an organization. Regarding the access card system, the IS auditor should be MOST concerned that: A. nonpersonalized access cards are given to the cleaning staff, who use a sign-in sheet but show no proof of identity. B. access cards are not labeled with the organization\\’s name and address to facilitate easy return of a lost card. C. card issuance and rights administration for the cards are done by different departments, causing unnecessary lead time for new cards. D. the computer system used for programming the cards can only be replaced after three weeks in the event of a system failure. Correct Answer: A Physical security is meant to control who is entering a secured area, so identification of all individuals is of utmost importance. It is not adequate to trust unknown external people by allowing them to write down their alleged name without proof, e.g., identity card, driver\\’s license. Choice B is not a concern because if the name and address of the organization was written on the card, a malicious finder could use the card to enter the organization\\’s premises. Separating card issuance from technical rights management is a method to ensure a proper segregation of duties so that no single person can produce a functioning card for a restricted area within the organization\\’s premises. Choices B and C are good practices, not concerns. Choice D may be a concern, but not as important since a system failure of the card programming device would normally not mean that the readers do not function anymore. It simply means that no new cards can be issued, so this option is minor compared to the threat of improper identification.
QUESTION 8 To restore service at a large processing facility after a disaster, which of the following tasks should be performed FIRST? A. Launch the emergency action team. B. Inform insurance company agents. C. Contact equipment vendors. D. Activate the reciprocal agreement. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Back Orifice is an example of: A. a virus. B. a legitimate remote control software. C. a backdoor that takes the form of an installed program. D. an eavesdropper. E. None of the choices. Correct Answer: C “A backdoor may take the form of an installed program (e.g., Back Orifice) or could be in the form of an existing “”legitimate”” program, or executable file. A specific form of backdoors are rootkits, which replaces system binaries and/or hooks into the function calls of the operating system to hide the presence of other programs, users, services and open ports.”
QUESTION 10 Which of the following methods of encryption has been proven to be almost unbreakable when correctly used? A. key pair B. Oakley C. certificate D. 3-DES E. one-time pad F. None of the choices. Correct Answer: E Explanation: It\\’s possible to protect messages in transit by means of cryptography. One method of encryption – the onetime pad –has been proven to be unbreakable when correctly used. This method uses a matching pair of key- codes, securely distributed, which are used once-and-only-once to encode and decode a single message. Note that this method is difficult to use securely, and is highly inconvenient as well.
QUESTION 11 Which of the following BEST characterizes a mantrap or deadman door, which is used as a deterrent control for the vulnerability of piggybacking? A. A monitored double-doorway entry system B. A monitored turnstile entry system C. A monitored doorway entry system D. A one-way door that does not allow exit after entry Correct Answer: A A monitored double-doorway entry system, also referred to as a mantrap or deadman door, is used a deterrent control for the vulnerability of piggybacking.
QUESTION 12 Ensuring that security and control policies support business and IT objectives is a primary objective of: A. An IT security policies audit B. A processing audit C. A software audit D. A vulnerability assessment Correct Answer: A Ensuring that security and control policies support business and IT objectives is a primary objective of an IT security policies audit.
QUESTION 13 Which of the following statement correctly describes the difference between symmetric key encryption and asymmetric key encryption? A. In symmetric key encryption the same key is used for encryption and decryption where as asymmetric key uses private key for encryption and decryption B. In symmetric key encryption the public key is used for encryption and the symmetric key for decryption. Where as in asymmetric key encryption the public key is used for encryption and private key is used for decryption C. In symmetric key encryption the same key is used for encryption and decryption where as in asymmetric key encryption the public key is used for encryption and private key is used for decryption. D. Both uses private key for encryption and the decryption process can be done using public key Correct Answer: C There are two basic techniques for encrypting information: symmetric encryption (also called secret key encryption) and asymmetric encryption (also called public key encryption.) Symmetric Encryption Symmetric encryption is the oldest and best-known technique. A secret key, which can be a number, a word, or just a string of random letters, is applied to the text of a message to change the content in a particular way. This might be as simple as shifting each letter by a number of places in the alphabet. As long as both sender and recipient know the secret key, they can encrypt and decrypt all messages that use this key. Few examples of symmetric key algorithms are DES, AES, Blowfish, etc Asymmetric Encryption The problem with secret keys is exchanging them over the Internet or a large network while preventing them from falling into the wrong hands. Anyone who knows the secret key can decrypt the message. One answer is the usage of asymmetric encryption, in which there are two related keys, usually called a key pair. The public key is made freely available to anyone who might want to send you a message. The second key, called the private key is kept secret, so that only you know it. Any message (text, binary files, or documents) that are encrypted using the public key can only be decrypted by the matching private key. Any message that is encrypted by using the private key can only be decrypted by using the matching public key. This means that you do not have to worry about passing public keys over the Internet (the keys are supposed to be public).A problem with asymmetric encryption, however, is that it is slower than symmetric encryption. It requires far more processing power to both encrypt and decrypt the content of the message. Few examples of asymmetric key algorithms are RSA, Elliptic key Cryptography (ECC), El Gamal, Differ-Hellman, etc The following were incorrect answers: The other options don\\’t describe correctly the difference between symmetric key and asymmetric key encryption. The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: CISA review manual 2014 Page number 348 and 349 http://support.microsoft.com/kb/246071
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